Assistant Professor in Oral Medicine and Radiology-2018(030/2018)



Assistant Professor in Oral Medicine and Radiology

Question Paper Code: 61/2018/OL

Category Code: 030/2018

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 05-12-2018

Department Medical Education

Question 1 : The study of structure of atmosphere and elements of weather and climates and climatic types and regions are called

1. Climatology

2. Hydrology

3. Geomorphology

4. Soil geography


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1. Climatology

Question 2 : ‘Ezhuthachan Puraskaram’ is the highest literary award of which state ?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Tamilnadu

3. Kerala

4. Karnataka


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3. Kerala

Question 3 : The golden ball award is given to which player in the FIFA World Cup 2018 ?

1. Ronaldo

2. Lionel Messi

3. Embappe

4. Luka Modric


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4. Luka Modric

Question 4 : Which one of the following features can be termed as ‘Physical Feature’ ?

1. Port

2. Road

3. Plain

4. Water park


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3. Plain

Question 5 : Who was popularly known as “Frontier Gandhi” ?

1. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

2. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

3. Mahatma Gandhi

4. Hasrat Mohani


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2. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Question 6 : Who was known as Jhansi Rani of Travancore ?

1. Accamma Cheriyan

2. Anna Chandi

3. K. R. Gowriyamma

4. Fathima Beevi


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1. Accamma Cheriyan

Question 7 : Which one of the following is the most important constituent of the atmosphere for human beings ?

1. Water vapour

2. Dust particle

3. Nitrogen

4. Oxygen


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1. Water vapour

Question 8 : Who was the first Indian leader elected to the Communist International ?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Sardar Vallabhai Patel

3. P. C. Joshy

4. M. N. Roy


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4. M. N. Roy

Question 9 : Who is the latest Dada Saheb Phalke award winner ?

1. Amitab Bachan

2. Adoor Gopalakrishnan

3. Vinod Khanna

4. Jayaraj


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3. Vinod Khanna

Question 10 : The air that contains moisture to its full capacity

1. Relative humidity

2. Specific humidity

3. Absolute humidity

4. Saturated air


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4. Saturated air


Question 11 : Who is the first Indian women to win gold medal in world junior athletics ?

1. P. T. Usha

2. Hima Das

3. M. D. Valsamma

4. Marycom


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2. Hima Das

Question 12 : In which river Sabarigiri Hydroelectric Project located ?

1. Periyar

2. Neyyar

3. Pamba

4. Bhavani


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3. Pamba

Question 13 : The session in which Mahatma Gandhi was elected as the President of Indian National Congress ?

1. Bombay

2. Calcutta

3. Karachi

4. Belgaum


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4. Belgaum

Question 14 : The year in which Partition of Bengal was cancelled by the British ?

1. 1911

2. 1905

3. 1909

4. 1907


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1. 1911

Question 15 : Who was the first Education Minister of Kerala ?

1. V. R. Krishnayyar

2. Joseph Mundassery

3. C. Kesavan

4. Sankara Narayanan


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2. Joseph Mundassery

Question 16 : The southern most fresh water lagoon in Kerala

1. Akkulam

2. Veli

3. Vellayani

4. Vembanad


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3. Vellayani

Question 17 : Who was the founder of Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham (SJPS) ?

1. Pandit Karuppan

2. Ayyankali

3. Sree Narayana Guru

4. Subbarayan


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2. Ayyankali

Question 18 : The spiritual leader of Kerala who explained the meaning of ‘Chinmudra’ to Swami Vivekananda ?

1. Bodheswara

2. Vaikunda Swamikal

3. Vaghbhatananda

4. Chattambi Swamikal


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4. Chattambi Swamikal

Question 19 : Kuriakose Elias Chavara was born at

1. Mannanam

2. Kainakary

3. Kollam

4. Pallippuram


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2. Kainakary

Question 20 : The movement started at Cherai was known as

1. Sahodara Sangham

2. Kallumala Samara

3. Malayali Memmorial

4. Ezhava Memmorial


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1. Sahodara Sangham


Question 21 : Inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which nerve ?

1. Mandibular nerve

2. Maxillary nerve

3. Ophthalmic nerve

4. Infra orbital nerve


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1. Mandibular nerve

Question 22 : Which bone does not take part in the formation of nasal septum ?

1. Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Sphenoid bone

4. Lacrimal bone


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4. Lacrimal bone

Question 23 : Transverse facial artery is a branch of

1. Superficial peroneal artery

2. Facial artery

3. Superficial temporal artery

4. External carotid artery


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3. Superficial temporal artery

Question 24 : Name the nucleus lodged beneath the facial colliculus.

1. Vestibular Nucleus

2. Facial Nucleus

3. Hypoglossal Nucleus

4. Abducent Nucleus


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4. Abducent Nucleus

Question 25 : External Jugular vein drains into which of the following vein ?

1. Facial vein

2. Brachiocephalic vein

3. Subclavian

4. Internal Jugular vein


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3. Subclavian

Question 26 : Name the calmodulin – dependant kinase which phosphorelates myosin to bring about the contraction of smooth muscle ?

1. Calcineurin

2. Calbindin

3. Myosin light chain kinase

4. Protein kinase C


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3. Myosin light chain kinase

Question 27 : One of the following is a ligant gated channel.

1. Aquaporins

2. Acetyl choline receptor

3. Sodium channel

4. Potassium channel


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2. Acetyl choline receptor

Question 28 : Connexons at gap junctions are channels made up of protein connexins which permit substances to pass

1. Between cells

2. From ECF to ICF

3. Through water channels

4. From cytoplasm to ECF


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1. Between cells

Question 29 : The resting membrane potential of a nerve axon is

1. + 70 mv

2. – 90 mv

3. – 70 mv

4. – 60 mv


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3. – 70 mv

Question 30 : The `Na^(+)` and `K^(+)` transport takes places through ___________ in the `Na^(+)` `K^(+)` AT Pase anchored in the cytoskeleton.

1. Antiport

2. Beta subunit

3. Epithelial `Na^(+)` channel

4. Alpha subunit


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4. Alpha subunit


Question 31 : Which is true regarding apotosis ?

1. Occurs in normal as well as diseased organs

2. Involves enzymatic digestion and protein denaturation

3. Initiated by tissue ischemia

4. Is associated with inflammation


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1. Occurs in normal as well as diseased organs

Question 32 : Which of the following is not an inhibitor of coagulation ?

1. Protein C

2. Protein S

3. F IX

4. Antithrombin C


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3. F IX

Question 33 : Special stain used for demonstration of Amyloid

1. Von kossa

2. Reticulin

3. Congo Red

4. Giemsa


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3. Congo Red

Question 34 : An example of type IV hyper sensitivity reaction

1. Anaphylaxis

2. Tuberculin reaction

3. Arthus reaction

4. Acute serum sickness


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2. Tuberculin reaction

Question 35 : Tumor with parenchymal cells representing more than one germ cell layer is called

1. Hamartoma

2. Choristoma

3. Adenoma

4. Teratoma


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4. Teratoma

Question 36 : Zero order kinetics shown by

1. Carbamazepine

2. Metoprolol

3. Phenytoin

4. Metoclopramide


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3. Phenytoin

Question 37 : Which of the following drug is an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes ?

1. Ketoconazole

2. Rifampicin

3. Phenytoin

4. Phenobarbitone


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1. Ketoconazole

Question 38 : Which of the following drug is a prodrug ?

1. Levodopa

2. Lignocaine

3. Salbutamol

4. Imimpramine


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1. Levodopa

Question 39 : Example for a drug producing Tachyphylaxis

1. Sertraline

2. Ephedrine

3. Amlodipine

4. Clozapine


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2. Ephedrine

Question 40 : Chloramphenicol produces aplastic anaemia which is not related to dose; is an example for

1. Drug allergy

2. Intolerance

3. Hypersensitivity

4. Idiosyncrasy


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4. Idiosyncrasy


Question 41 : Normal serum bilirubin level is

1. 1-2 mg%

2. 0.1-0.7 mg%

3. 0.2-0.8 mg%

4. 0.4-1.2 mg%


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3. 0.2-0.8 mg%

Question 42 : Which of the following is an essential amino acid ?

1. Methionine

2. Cysteine

3. Tyrosine

4. Aspartic acid


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1. Methionine

Question 43 : Which of the following vitamin has antioxidant property ?

1. Vitamin D

2. Vitamin K

3. Vitamin E

4. Niacin


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3. Vitamin E

Question 44 : Rotheras test is done to detect the presence of which compound is urine ?

1. Glucose

2. Ketone bodies

3. Fructose

4. Uric acid


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2. Ketone bodies

Question 45 : Phenylketonuria is due to the deficiency of which enzyme ?

1. Aldolase

2. Transaminase

3. Tyrosinase

4. Phenylalanine hydroxylase


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4. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Question 46 : Which of the following are sterilized in an autoclave ?

1. Surgical instruments

2. Dressings

3. Culture media

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above

Question 47 : Vincent’s angina is caused by

1. Streptococcus pyogenes

2. Leptotrichia buccalis

3. Treponema pallidum

4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae


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2. Leptotrichia buccalis

Question 48 : Contact dermatitis is an example of

1. Type I hypersensitivity

2. Type II hypersensitivity

3. Type III hypersensitivity

4. Type IV hypersensitivity


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4. Type IV hypersensitivity

Question 49 : Which of the following is a non suppurative complication of Streptococcus pyogenes ?

1. Quinsy

2. Otitis media

3. Ludwig’s angina

4. Acute glomerulonephritis


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4. Acute glomerulonephritis

Question 50 : All of the following regarding candida infection is true except

1. Shows true hyphae on examination with potassium hydroxide

2. Predisposing factors include diabetes mellitus, use of broad spectrum antibiotics

3. Germ tube test is positive for Candida albicans

4. Amphotericin B is used in disseminated candidosis


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1. Shows true hyphae on examination with potassium hydroxide


Question 51 : Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

1. Sound coalescence of development lobes results in grooves and faulty coalescence results in fissures

2. The dentino enamel junction is a hypomineralized zone of about 10 µm thick

3. Enamel spindles are odontoblastic processes which cross the DEJ into enamel

4. Gnarled enamel is not subject to cleavage as is regular enamel


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2. The dentino enamel junction is a hypomineralized zone of about 10 µm thick

Question 52 : The average diameter of dentinal tubules at DEJ

1. 0.5 to 0.9 µm

2. 2 to 3 µm

3. 10 to 14 µm

4. 0.005 to 0.01 µm


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1. 0.5 to 0.9 µm

Question 53 : Which of the following statement is correct ?

1. Dentin is less mineralised than cementum or bone

2. Hardness of dentin near pulp is about three times greater than near DEJ

3. Tertiary dentin is formed by tertiary odontoblasts

4. Tensile strength of dentin is 40 MPa


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4. Tensile strength of dentin is 40 MPa

Question 54 : The average pulp space volume in permanent adult human teeth is

1. 0.024 ml

2. 1.2 ml

3. 0.0012 ml

4. 2.4 ml


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1. 0.024 ml

Question 55 : Reparative dentin formation rate

1. 4 to 8 µm/day

2. 1.5 µm/day

3. 0.05 µm/day

4. 0.4 µm/day


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2. 1.5 µm/day

Question 56 : Porosity of silica containing investments is more in all of the following conditions except

1. Heterogeneous size and shape of refractory silica particles

2. Greater refractory silica percentage in the investment

3. Higher water : powder ratio of the original investment mix

4. Greater mold wall thickness


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1. Heterogeneous size and shape of refractory silica particles

Question 57 : The thickness of gold foil is

1. 0.01 to 0.07 mm

2. 0.001 to 0.007 mm

3. 1 to 4 mm

4. 5 to 75 µm


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2. 0.001 to 0.007 mm

Question 58 : Which of the following is not true regarding retention of posts ?

1. Threaded posts are 6 to 8 times more retentive than smooth posts

2. Parallel sided posts are 2-3 times more retentive than tapered ones

3. Diameter of posts between 0.06 to 0.65″ drastically increases retention

4. Greater the ratio between crown and root portion, the greater will be the retention


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4. Greater the ratio between crown and root portion, the greater will be the retention

Question 59 : Statements regarding creep in dental amalgam are all true except

1. Increase with mercury excess

2. Less the creep, better marginal integrity

3. Can occur at mouth temperature

4. Pronounced below equicohesive temperature


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4. Pronounced below equicohesive temperature

Question 60 : Generalizations regarding organisms isolated from root canal are all of the following except

1. Mixed infections are more common than single organism isolates

2. Pulpal isolates are similar to oral flora, with gram positive cocci predominating

3. Organisms associated with flare ups differ from asymptomatic canal isolates

4. Approximately 25% of isolated orgranisms are anaerobes


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3. Organisms associated with flare ups differ from asymptomatic canal isolates


Question 61 : Only ectodermal component of tooth germ.

1. Dental follicle

2. Dental papilla

3. Dental sac

4. Enamel organ


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4. Enamel organ

Question 62 : Formalin is a

1. Fixative

2. Stain

3. Antiseptic

4. Irrigant


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1. Fixative

Question 63 : The physiologic wearing away of enamel is

1. Abrasion

2. Erosion

3. Attrition

4. Dental caries


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3. Attrition

Question 64 : Actinomycosis is a

1. Fungal infection

2. Bacterial infection

3. Viral infection

4. Parasitic infection


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2. Bacterial infection

Question 65 : Stafne cyst is

1. Developmental anomaly

2. Inflammatory cyst

3. Retension cyst

4. Extravasation cyst


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1. Developmental anomaly

Question 66 : Speech problem most commonly associated with irregular maxillary incisors are the difficulty in pronouncing

1. /f/, /v/

2. /t/, /d/

3. /s/, /z/

4. th, sh


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2. /t/, /d/

Question 67 : Condition termed X-occlusion is commonly associated with

1. Angles class II div I malocclusion

2. Class III in south pacific islanders

3. Skeletal class II malocclusion

4. Buccal crossbites in Australian aborigines


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4. Buccal crossbites in Australian aborigines

Question 68 : Term Duchenne smile refers to

1. Enjoyment smile

2. Social smile

3. Posed smile

4. Static smile


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1. Enjoyment smile

Question 69 : Philosophy of fixed appliance ideally indicated for patients with moderate to severe periodontal problem is

1. Multi-banded therapy

2. Pre adjusted edgewise with elastomeric rings

3. Self ligating systems

4. Lingula orthodontic appliances


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3. Self ligating systems

Question 70 : Surgical procedure that can be performed very early in life with larger range of movement is

1. Orthognathic surgery

2. Distraction osteogenesis

3. Bioprogressive therapy

4. Wilkodontics


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2. Distraction osteogenesis


Question 71 : Which of the following methods of pulp vitality is an objective test

1. Electric pulp test

2. Heat test

3. Cold test

4. Pulse oximetry


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4. Pulse oximetry

Question 72 : Making the child observe when dentist works on a cooperative child is

1. Modeling

2. Reinforcement

3. Aversive conditioning

4. HOME


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1. Modeling

Question 73 : Radiograph of the cervical vertebrae can be used to assess

1. Sexual age

2. Skeletal age

3. Chronological age

4. Mental age


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2. Skeletal age

Question 74 : Critical pH of saliva at which the hydroxyapatite of enamel starts to get dissolved is

1. 6

2. 6.5

3. 5.5

4. 4


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3. 5.5

Question 75 : Twin block appliance is used primarily in the treatment of

1. Mandibular deficiency

2. Mandibular excess

3. Maxillary deficiency

4. Maxillary excess


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1. Mandibular deficiency

Question 76 : Topical antifungal agent used in Oral Candidiasis

1. Acyclovir

2. Clotrimazole

3. Nevirapine

4. Ketoconazole


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2. Clotrimazole

Question 77 : Natal teeth associated with

1. Clouston syndrome

2. Goltz-Gorlin syndrome

3. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome

4. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome


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3. Ellis-van Creveld syndrome

Question 78 : Mulitple separate radiolucencies of jaws seen in the radiographic appearance

1. Cemetoblastoma

2. Fibrous Dysplasia

3. Osteitis Deformans

4. Multiple Myeloma


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4. Multiple Myeloma

Question 79 : X-rays were discovered by Roentgen in

1. `8^(th)` November 1895

2. `8^(th)` November 1896

3. `8^(th)` November 1897

4. `8^(th)` November 1898


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1. `8^(th)` November 1895

Question 80 : S.I. unit of dose equivalent

1. Rad

2. Sievert

3. Rem

4. Gray


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2. Sievert


Question 81 : All are ethical principles except

1. Beneficance

2. Veracity

3. Bogus diploma

4. Non maleficience


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3. Bogus diploma

Question 82 : Consumer Protection Act came into force on

1. `14^(th)` April 1986

2. `14^(th)` May 1948

3. `15^(th)` April 1987

4. `15^(th)` May 1949


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3. `15^(th)` April 1987

Question 83 : Snowball sample is an example for which sampling method ?

1. Quota sampling

2. Purposive sampling

3. Convenience sampling

4. Systematic sampling


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2. Purposive sampling

Question 84 : Predominent immunoglobulin in saliva

1. IG A

2. IG M

3. IG D

4. IG G


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1. IG A

Question 85 : Safety tolerated dose of fluoride

1. 8-16 mg/kg

2. 8-16 gm/kg

3. 32-64 mg/kg

4. 32-64 gm/kg


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1. 8-16 mg/kg

Question 86 : Principal cell type in gingival epithelium is

1. Fibroblast

2. Melanocyte

3. Keratinocyte

4. Merkel cell


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3. Keratinocyte

Question 87 : Which among the following is not a reconstructive periodontal surgical procedure ?

1. Guided Tissue Regeneration

2. Placement of Alloplast bone substitute

3. LANAP

4. Osteoplasty


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4. Osteoplasty

Question 88 : Ostell device is used to assess

1. Tooth mobility

2. Bony pattern at implant surgical site

3. Mobility of implants

4. Periodontal Disease activity


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3. Mobility of implants

Question 89 : Which among the following bacteria form star shaped colonies ?

1. P Gingivalis

2. Aggrigatibactor actinomycetum comitans

3. T Denticola

4. Actinomyces Viscosus


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2. Aggrigatibactor actinomycetum comitans

Question 90 : Periostat is

1. 20 mg Tetracycline

2. 20 mg Doxycycline

3. 25 mg minocycline

4. 25 mg metronidazole


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2. 20 mg Doxycycline


Question 91 : Direction of application of first force in dental extraction using forceps is

1. Buccal

2. Lingual

3. Apical

4. Rotational


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3. Apical

Question 92 : Which of the following muscles has dual innervations ?

1. Masseter

2. Myolohyoid

3. Omohyoid

4. Digastric


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4. Digastric

Question 93 : 2% local anesthetic solution is

1. 0.2 mg/ml

2. 2 mg/ml

3. 20 mg/ml

4. 200 mg/ml


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3. 20 mg/ml

Question 94 : Which of the clotting factors is not dependent on Vitamin K for synthesis ?

1. Factor II

2. Factor V

3. Factor VII

4. Factor IX


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2. Factor V

Question 95 : Most common site of mandibular fracture is

1. Condylar process

2. Coronoid process

3. Symphysis

4. Parasymphysis


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1. Condylar process

Question 96 : ‘Combination Syndrome’ coined by

1. Heartwell

2. Misch

3. Kelly

4. Stewart


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3. Kelly

Question 97 : Choice of finish line for PJC

1. Feather edge

2. Shoulder

3. Chanfer

4. Bevel


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2. Shoulder

Question 98 : Instrument for post space creation

1. Peeso reamer

2. Excavator

3. Spatula

4. File


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1. Peeso reamer

Question 99 : Componer is

1. Polyacid modified composite rein

2. GIC

3. Gutta percha

4. Impression compound


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1. Polyacid modified composite rein

Question 100 : Density of poly (methyl methacry late)

1. 1.19 g/`cm^(3)` “

2. 1.25 g/`cm^(3)`

3. 2.2 g/`cm^(3)`

4. 3.2 g/`cm^(3)`


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1. 1.19 g/`cm^(3)` “

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Assistant Professor in Oral Medicine and Radiology

Question Paper Code: 61/2018/OL

Category Code: 030/2018

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 05-12-2018

Department Medical Education

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