Asst Professor in Radiotherapy-2018(020/2018)



Asst Professor in Radiotherapy

Question Paper Code: 62/2018/OL

Category Code: 020/2018

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 06-12-2018

Department Medical Education

Question 1 : The Chilika Lake lies in the state of

1. Gujarat

2. Jammu and Kashmir

3. Rajasthan

4. Orissa


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4. Orissa

Question 2 : The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

1. Orissa

2. Rajasthan

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Tripura


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1. Orissa

Question 3 : The Pastern most longitude of India is

1. 68°7’E

2. 77°6’E

3. 82°32’E

4. 97°25’E


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4. 97°25’E

Question 4 : Uttarakhand, Uttarpradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Skikkim have Common frontiers with

1. Nepal

2. China

3. Bhutan

4. Myanmar


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1. Nepal

Question 5 : The height of the mountain peak Nanda devi is _____________ metre.

1. 8598

2. 7817

3. 8172

4. 7756


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2. 7817

Question 6 : Which five year plan introduced IRDP and NREP ?

1. `7^(th)`

2. `6^(th)`

3. `5^(th)`

4. `4^(th)`


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2. `6^(th)`

Question 7 : The book “Planned Economy for India” was written by

1. P. C. Mahalanobis

2. Dr. K. M. Raj

3. M. Visveswaraya

4. Dr. Manmohan Singh


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3. M. Visveswaraya

Question 8 : The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was enacted in the year

1. 1969

2. 1970

3. 1973

4. 1971


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3. 1973

Question 9 : Who presented the first budget in Kerala Assembly ?

1. P. K. Kunju

2. C. Achutha Menon

3. R. Sankar

4. K. R. Gauri


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2. C. Achutha Menon

Question 10 : Anamudi, the highest Peak in Kerala is in __________ Taluk.

1. Munnar

2. Peerumed

3. Devikulam

4. Chittoor


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1. Munnar


Question 11 : Who wrote the book “Jathinirnayam” ?

1. Chattambi Swamikal

2. Sree Narayana Guru

3. Ayya Vaikundar

4. Kumaran Asan


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2. Sree Narayana Guru

Question 12 : Who is the propagator of the idea, “Anandajati” ?

1. Ayyankali

2. Vagbhatananda

3. Brahmananda Sivayogi

4. Pandit Karuppan


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3. Brahmananda Sivayogi

Question 13 : Who translated the “Atmopadesa Sathakam” of Sree Narayana Guru to English language ?

1. Dr. Palpu

2. Kumaranasam

3. Thycand Ayya

4. Nataraja Guru


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4. Nataraja Guru

Question 14 : c. Kesavan made the Kozhencherry speech in the year

1. 1932

2. 1933

3. 1935

4. 1936


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3. 1935

Question 15 : “Chithralekha” is written by

1. Pandit Karuppan

2. Kumara Asam

3. Thycaud Ayya

4. Vaghbatananda


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1. Pandit Karuppan

Question 16 : The cleanest city in India, by the Survey of 2018

1. Bhopal

2. Chandigarh

3. Lucknow

4. Indore


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4. Indore

Question 17 : Who won the Orange Cap for leading run scorer of the IPL Tournament 2018 ?

1. Kane Williamson

2. Virat Kohli

3. Rishabh Pant

4. A B devilliers


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1. Kane Williamson

Question 18 : Which bank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world ?

1. Hong Kong Bank

2. Standard Chartered Bank

3. Citi Bank

4. Bank of America


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3. Citi Bank

Question 19 : The `105^(th)` Indian Science Congress was held in 2018 at

1. Bhuvaneswar

2. Bangaluru

3. Bhopal

4. Imphal


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4. Imphal

Question 20 : The winner of J. C. Danil Award 2017

1. Adoor Gopalakrishnan

2. Sree Kumaran Thanpi

3. M. K. Arjunam

4. K. G. George


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2. Sree Kumaran Thanpi


Question 21 : A nucleus remains stable as Z(proton number) increases when

1. no. of neutrons > no. of protons

2. no. of protons > no. of neutrons

3. no. of protons = no. of neutrons

4. none of the above


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1. no. of neutrons > no. of protons

Question 22 : In `90_(Sr-)` `90_(Y)` beta ray applicator, the parent and daughter nuclei are in

1. Transient equilibrium

2. Secular equilibrium

3. Relative equilibrium

4. Not in equilibrium


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2. Secular equilibrium

Question 23 : Compton interaction depends up on

1. Photon energy and electron density of the medium

2. Z and the electron density of the medium

3. Photon energy and Z of the medium

4. Z and free electron energy level of the medium


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1. Photon energy and electron density of the medium

Question 24 : In build up region for high energy photon beams

1. Energy transferred increases

2. Energy absorbed increases

3. Energy absorbed decreases

4. Energy transferred is equal to energy absorbed


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2. Energy absorbed increases

Question 25 : The calculation parameters which we used for the SSD set up treatments are

1. PDD and the dose rate in air at Isocentre

2. TMR and the dose rate in air at Isocentre

3. PDD and the dose rate in water at `d_(max)`

4. TMR and dose rate in water at `d_(max)`


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3. PDD and the dose rate in water at `d_(max)`

Question 26 : The unit of integral dose is

1. Joule/Kg

2. Coulomb/Kg

3. Joule Kg

4. Joule


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4. Joule

Question 27 : Radiation Field size is defined as the

1. Lateral distance between the collimator opening

2. Lateral distance between the optical field edges

3. Lateral distance between the 90% Isodose line at reference depth

4. Lateral distance between 50% Isodose line at reference depth


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4. Lateral distance between 50% Isodose line at reference depth

Question 28 : Radiation weighting factor is same for

1. Photons and electrons

2. Neutrons and photons

3. Thermal neutrons and protons

4. None of the above


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1. Photons and electrons

Question 29 : Using TLD personal monitoring system we can detect

1. Only photons

2. Only electrons

3. Photons and electrons

4. Photons, electrons and neutrons


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3. Photons and electrons

Question 30 : The filters used with Mega Voltage x-rays is for

1. Removing unwanted soft X rays

2. Making the intensity uniform across the beam

3. Removing the horns across the beam

4. All of the above


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2. Making the intensity uniform across the beam


Question 31 : “Involvement of two or more lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm with involvement of spleen and extra lymphatic organ” in Ann Arbor staging classification for Hodgkins disease is

1. III

2. III S

3. III E

4. III SE


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4. III SE

Question 32 : The therapeutic ratio of a given regimen is the ratio of

1. Percentage tumor control with therapy/Percentage complication with therapy

2. Percentage complication with therapy/Percentage tumor control with therapy

3. Percentage normal tissue damage/Percentage tumor tissue damage

4. None of the above


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1. Percentage tumor control with therapy/Percentage complication with therapy

Question 33 : Beckwith Wiedemann Syndrome is associated with Wilm’ stumor in

1. 13%

2. 5%

3. 9%

4. 1%


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2. 5%

Question 34 : 5 year survival rate of inflammatory breast cancer after multidisciplinary management

1. 20%

2. 25%

3. 30%

4. 40%


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4. 40%

Question 35 : All the following included in electromagnetic spectrum except

1. Visible light

2. Gamma-rays

3. Beta rays

4. X-rays


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3. Beta rays

Question 36 : Risk of relapse of stage I seminoma after high inguinal radical orchidectomy is

1. 10%

2. 20%

3. 30%

4. 40%


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2. 20%

Question 37 : What is the dose limit for whole body of a radiation worker ?

1. 1 mSv/year

2. 10 mSv/year

3. 20 mSv/year

4. 30 mSv/year


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3. 20 mSv/year

Question 38 : Which of the following gene(s) is/are associated with hereditary breast cancer ?

1. BRCA1/BRCA2

2. CHECK2

3. PALB2

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above

Question 39 : Nobel prize for the discovery of cell cycle was received by all except

1. H. Hartwell

2. Timothy Hunt

3. Zetterberg

4. Paul M. Nurse


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3. Zetterberg

Question 40 : Gamma ray energy related to cobalt 60 radiosotope

1. 1.25 MeV

2. 1.17 MeV

3. 1.33 MeV

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above


Question 41 : Which of the following statements regarding lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is wrong ?

1. LCIS cells are commonly ER negative

2. LCIS has been reported to present with a multi centric distribution in upto 90% of the mastectomy specimen

3. Loss of E cadherin is often observed

4. Represents <15% of all noninvasive breast cancer


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1. LCIS cells are commonly ER negative

Question 42 : Type of asbestosfibers with highest risk of malignant pleural mesothelioma

1. Chrysotile

2. Amphibole

3. Cribriform

4. Cruciate


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2. Amphibole

Question 43 : Normal tissue tolerance dose of heart with conventional fractionation radiation treatment is

1. No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 20 Gy

2. No more then 1/3 of heart volume to receive 40 Gy

3. No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 60 Gy

4. No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 80 Gy


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3. No more than 1/3 of heart volume to receive 60 Gy

Question 44 : Most common origin for cardiac metastasis is

1. Upper gastro intestinal tract

2. Breast

3. Lung

4. Melanoma


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3. Lung

Question 45 : The risk of breast cancer in a woman whose second degree relative has breast cancer is

1. 1.5%

2. 5%

3. 10%

4. 3%


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1. 1.5%

Question 46 : Bite block (intraoral device) is used in the radiation treatment of carcinoma tongue to

1. Replace air and give uniform dose distribution

2. Reduce radiation toxicity to buccal mucosa and hard palate

3. Immobilization of tongue

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above

Question 47 : Standard dose of definitive radiation therapy for esophageal cancer is

1. 45 to 50 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule

2. 50 to 50.4v Gy at conventional fractionation schedule

3. 60 to 64.8 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule

4. 55 to 60.4 Gy at conventional fractionation schedule


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2. 50 to 50.4v Gy at conventional fractionation schedule

Question 48 : Prophylactic cranial irradiation indicated in

1. CML

2. Esthesioneuroblastoma

3. Small cell lung carcinoma

4. All of the above


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3. Small cell lung carcinoma

Question 49 : Cranial nerve least affected in carcinoma nasopharynx is

1. I

2. III

3. V

4. VII


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1. I

Question 50 : Mechanism of chemotherapy induced radiation sensitivity of taxanes

1. Cellular arrest in G2M phase of the cell cycle

2. Induction of apoptosis

3. Reoxygenation of tumor cells

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above


Question 51 : Which of the following normal tissue constraints is wrong ?

1. Optic nerve – Maximum < 55 Gy

2. Optic chiasm – Maximum < 55 Gy

3. Brain stem – Maximum < 45 Gy

4. Spinal cord – Maximum < 45 Gy


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3. Brain stem – Maximum < 45 Gy

Question 52 : Cervicallymphadenopathy is present in upto _____________ % of patients with carcinoma nasopharynx.

1. 57

2. 67

3. 77

4. 87


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4. 87

Question 53 : Half-life of iodine -131 is

1. 24 Hours

2. 8 Days

3. 72 Hours

4. 5.26 Years


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2. 8 Days

Question 54 : Which of the following is correct ?

1. LDR range of 1-2 Gy/hour

2. MDR range of 2-12 Gy/minute

3. HDR over 12000 cGy/hour

4. None of the above


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4. None of the above

Question 55 : Median lethal dose of whole body radiation expressed as a single fraction is approximately

1. 4 Gy

2. 8 Gy

3. 15 Gy

4. 20 Gy


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1. 4 Gy

Question 56 : Which of the following regarding “hot spot” is correct (ICRU report 62) ?

1. Volume outside PTV that receives dose>100% of specified PTV dose at least `2cm^(3)` in a section

2. High dose to RVR (Remaining Volume at Risk)

3. Volume outside PTV that receives dose>100% of specified PTV dose, 15mm diameter

4. Area outside target that receives dose>100% of specified target dose, at least `2cm^(3)` in a section


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3. Volume outside PTV that receives dose>100% of specified PTV dose, 15mm diameter

Question 57 : PDD (Percentage Death Dose) of gamma rays of Cobalt 60 at 10 cm depth is (SSD-80 cm)

1. 45%

2. 55%

3. 65%

4. 75%


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2. 55%

Question 58 : FDA approved antiangiogenic drug Regorafenib improves overall survival in chemo refractory metastatic colorectal cancer is

1. 1.4 months

2. 4.7 months

3. 6.2 months

4. 8.1 months


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1. 1.4 months

Question 59 : Which of the following is not a Hallmark of cancer ?

1. Self-sufficiency in growth signals

2. Sensitivity to anti-growth signals

3. Resistance to Apoptosis

4. Limitless replicative potential


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2. Sensitivity to anti-growth signals

Question 60 : Which is wrong regarding hyper fractonation ?

1. Smaller than standard doses/fraction

2. Treating once a day for 6 or 7 days/week

3. Usually gives two fractions/day for five days/week

4. Overall treatment time prolonged


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4. Overall treatment time prolonged


Question 61 : Van Nuys Prognostic Index for ductal carcinoma in (breast) considers following features except

1. Lesion size

2. Perivascular invasion

3. Margins

4. Histology


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2. Perivascular invasion

Question 62 : Positive immunohistochemistry staining for calcitonin in medullary carcinoma thyroid has sensitivity range of ______________ in cytology specimen

1. 95-100%

2. 75-80%

3. 65-70%

4. 55-60%


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4. 55-60%

Question 63 : For detecting Minimal residual disease following complete clinical remission in leukemia, which test technique helps in decreasing false positives

1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

2. Reverse transcriptase PCR

3. Real time PCR

4. Florescent In situ Hybridization


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3. Real time PCR

Question 64 : Which chromosomal translocation in ALL have favorable prognosis ?

1. t(12;21) (p12;q22)

2. t(9;22) (q34;q11)

3. t(1;19) (q23;p13)

4. t(4;11) (q21:q23)


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1. t(12;21) (p12;q22)

Question 65 : The following gene expression profiles in Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma shows poor prognosis except

1. Bcl-2 expression

2. Bcl-1 expression

3. HLA-DR expression

4. P53 gene mutation


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2. Bcl-1 expression

Question 66 : True regarding flow cytometry in cancer diagnosis include

1. Prompt result availability

2. Need for fresh specimen

3. Can analyze two or more markers simultaneously

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above

Question 67 : T4N2M1 (ipsilateral) carcinoma lung comes under which composite stage ?

1. Stage IIB

2. Stage IIIA

3. Stage IIIB

4. Stage IV


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3. Stage IIIB

Question 68 : As per NCCN guidelines 2018, FIGO stage IA of epithelial ovarian cancer patients in whom fertility needs to be preserved is treated by

1. Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty

2. Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty

3. Total Abdominal Hystrectomy with bilateral salpingo-oopherectomty and comprehensive staging

4. Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty with comprehensive staging


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4. Unilateral salpingo-oopherectomty with comprehensive staging

Question 69 : PET scan is considered “essential” in following initial tumor workup as per NCCN guidelines except

1. Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

2. Hodgkins disease

3. Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Follicular Lymphoma

4. Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Gastric MALT lymphoma


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1. Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma-Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Question 70 : FIGO staging workup for carcinoma cervix include

1. CT scan abdomen

2. MRI Scan abdomen

3. USG abdomen

4. None of the above


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3. USG abdomen


Question 71 : Indication/s of Radiotherapy in sigmoid or caecal primary carcinoma include all except

1. Close or positive resection margin

2. All T2-T3 diseases

3. T4 disease with pelvic adherence

4. Both A) and C)


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2. All T2-T3 diseases

Question 72 : Regarding results of German Trial in treatment of cancer Rectum, pre operative chemo radiotherapy showed following results compared to post operative chemo radiotherapy

1. Improved 5 year survival rate

2. Decreased chronic toxicity rate

3. Poor sphincter preservation rate

4. Increased acute toxicity rate


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2. Decreased chronic toxicity rate

Question 73 : WPRT (Whole Prostate Radiotherapy) is indicated in all except

1. Lymph node involvement as per radiological investigation

2. Risk of lymph node involvement >/=15%

3. Gleasons score of 7 and more than 50% biopsy positive

4. None of above


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1. Lymph node involvement as per radiological investigation

Question 74 : Total Low Dose Rate brachytherapy dose commonly used in carcinoma cervix treatment after external beam radiotherapy of 45Gy is __________Gy

1. 30 Gy

2. 35 Gy

3. 40 Gy

4. 45 Gy


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3. 40 Gy

Question 75 : A 15 year old boy with swelling tibial shaft complaints of local pain and fever. Histopathology shows small round cells. Most likely diagnoses is

1. Osteochondroma

2. Giant cell carcin oma

3. Osteosarcoma

4. Ewings sarcoma


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4. Ewings sarcoma

Question 76 : A patient is receiving Cytarabine, Daunorubicin and Etoposide as part of induction therapy for Leukemia.ECG shows peaked T wave with ST depression. Child’s heart rate is 70/minute (<20% from base line heart rate). Serum potassium of 7.4 m Eq/L. Clinical should initiate measures to manage

1. Tumor Lyses Syndrome

2. Hyperkalemia

3. Hyper leukocytosis

4. Syndrome of Insufficient ADH secretion


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1. Tumor Lyses Syndrome

Question 77 : In Breast Reconstruction Surgery after mastectomy, which of the following is not true regarding TRAM flap.

1. Flap may be based on a pedicled Superior Epigastric artery

2. It is a type of myo cutaneous flap

3. The flap can be transferred as a free flap

4. It uses supra umbilical fat


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4. It uses supra umbilical fat

Question 78 : As per NSABP B-18 trial, _____ % of patients who had a planned mastectomy were able to undergo breast conservation therapy following neo adjuvant chemotherapy.

1. 5%

2. 9%

3. 13%

4. 17%


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2. 9%

Question 79 : The prescribed dose in Carcinoma Nasopharynx radiation planning is ______ to PTV of Clinical Target Volume (CTV) gross and ______ to PTV of CTV high risk subclinical disease.

1. 70 Gy, 59.4 Gy

2. 64 Gy, 59.4 Gy

3. 59.4 Gy, 54 Gy

4. 54 Gy, 59.4 Gy


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1. 70 Gy, 59.4 Gy

Question 80 : Radio Surgery for focally recurrent Glioblastoma Multiforme has resulted in median survival of

1. 3 to 5 months

2. 5 to 8 months

3. 8 to 10 months

4. 12 to 18 months


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3. 8 to 10 months


Question 81 : People friendly health care delivery system is the concept of

1. Mission LIFE

2. Mission Aardram

3. Education mission

4. Haritha Keralam


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2. Mission Aardram

Question 82 : Historically the first chemotherapeutic drugs used in the clinical setting were

1. Anthracyclines

2. Antimetabolites

3. Alkylating agents

4. None


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3. Alkylating agents

Question 83 : Adverse effects of oral morphine includes all EXCEPT

1. Respiratory depression

2. Nausea and vomiting

3. Sedation

4. Constipation


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1. Respiratory depression

Question 84 : The vitamin used to reduce the severity of hand foot syndrome of 5-fluro uracil

1. B12

2. B2

3. C

4. B6


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4. B6

Question 85 : NOT true about tamoxifen flare

1. Occurs in approximately 30% of cases with metastatic disease

2. It develops in the first few weeks of therapy

3. Full dose of tamoxifen should be continued

4. Occasionally associated with hypercalcemia


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1. Occurs in approximately 30% of cases with metastatic disease

Question 86 : A measure of central tendency

1. Range

2. Standard deviation

3. Mode

4. None


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3. Mode

Question 87 : The dominant means of energy production in cancer cells

1. Gluconeogenesis

2. Glycolysis

3. Lactic acidosis

4. None


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2. Glycolysis

Question 88 : A radiotherapy emergency

1. Superior venacava obstruction

2. Severe bone pain

3. Spinal cord compression

4. Brain metastasis


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3. Spinal cord compression

Question 89 : The time interval between end of treatment and PET imaging after concurrent chemoradiation should be at least

1. 6-8 weeks

2. 10-12 weeks

3. 2-3 weeks

4. 24-36 weeks


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2. 10-12 weeks

Question 90 : For all the following analytical studies, the individual is the unit of analysis EXCEPT

1. Ecological

2. Cross sectional

3. Cohort

4. Case control


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1. Ecological


Question 91 : Prophylactic surgery can prevent cancer in

1. Ulcerative colitis

2. Multiple endocrine neoplasia

3. Both A) and B)

4. None


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3. Both A) and B)

Question 92 : NOT true about mesna

1. Its a synthetic sulfhydryl compound

2. May cause false positive results for ketones

3. The usual does is 80% of the daily mg ifosfamide dose

4. May not prevent hemorrhagic cystitis in all patients


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3. The usual does is 80% of the daily mg ifosfamide dose

Question 93 : All are elements of communicating bad news-the SPIKE approach EXCEPT

1. Intimacy

2. Perception and preparation

3. Knowledge of the condition

4. Empathy and exploration


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1. Intimacy

Question 94 : All are adverse effects of cisplatin EXCEPT

1. Neuropathy

2. Ototoxicity

3. Nephrotoxicity

4. Hypercalcemia


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4. Hypercalcemia

Question 95 : The APL group will get the benefit of karunya benevolent fund if their annual income is below

1. 5 lakhs

2. 3 lakhs

3. 1 lakhs

4. 4 lakhs


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2. 3 lakhs

Question 96 : When a patient completes his/her age 18 years after commencement of treatment, further assistance under cancer suraksha scheme will be extended for a maximum period of

1. 5 years

2. 3 years

3. 2 years

4. None


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4. None

Question 97 : About Nivolumab TRUE

1. Anticytotoxic T lymphocyte associated protein 4 (CTLA4) inhibitor

2. Programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) inhibitor

3. mTOR kinase inhibitor

4. None


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2. Programmed cell death 1 (PD-1) inhibitor

Question 98 : Alemtuzumab targets

1. CD 33 antigen

2. CD 20 antigen

3. CD 52 antigen

4. Epidermal growth factor


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3. CD 52 antigen

Question 99 : NOT true of phase III trails

1. The primary endpoints should be demonstrably related to patient benefit

2. Eligibility criteria should be broad to enhance generalizability of results

3. Conditions of treatment should be suited to community patient care

4. A quality of life measure should be included to measure benefit to patients


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4. A quality of life measure should be included to measure benefit to patients

Question 100 : Patient reported outcomes are important endpoint in oncology research because

1. Cancer treatments often have a large impact on overall survival

2. Cancer treatment decisions are often straight forward

3. Cancer treatments that are curative need to be advanced

4. Cancer treatments often have significant toxicity


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4. Cancer treatments often have significant toxicity



Asst Professor in Radiotherapy

Question Paper Code: 62/2018/OL

Category Code: 020/2018

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 06-12-2018

Department Medical Education

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