Chief General Manager-2015(296/2011)



Chief General Manager

Category Code: 296/2011

Question Paper Code: 1/2015/OL

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 27-01-2015

Question 1 : Regarding a bill being a money bill the certificate of the

1. President is final

2. Vice President is final

3. Speaker of Loksabha is final

4. Finance Minister is final


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3. Speaker of Loksabha is final

Question 2 : Which of the following statements concerning the power of the president is wrong

1. No bill can become a law unless the president puts his assent on it

2. The president has the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya sabha and 2 Anglo Indian members to the Loksabha

3. The president declares war and concludes treaties ,subject to the provisions of the constitution

4. The president has the power to summon ,prorogue and dissolve Loksabha and Rajya sabha


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4. The president has the power to summon ,prorogue and dissolve Loksabha and Rajya sabha

Question 3 : Which kind of Thullal form is used in the first work of kunjanNambiar(kallyana sougandhikam)

1. Sheethangan Thullal

2. Ottan Thullal

3. Parayan Thullal

4. Pana Thullal


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1. Sheethangan Thullal

Question 4 : Herman Gundert was a member of

1. London Missionary Society

2. Church Missionary Society

3. Basel Evangelical Missionary Society

4. London Evangelical Church Missionary Society


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3. Basel Evangelical Missionary Society

Question 5 : The Movement demanded to quit election in Travancore ,claiming the negligence of adequate reservation for communal minorities

1. Ezhava Memmorial

2. Nivarthana Prakshobham

3. Malayalee Memmorial

4. Kalpathi-Sucheendram satyagraham


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2. Nivarthana Prakshobham

Question 6 : The Novel ‘ Narmani Putava’ written by

1. P.Valsala

2. Sara Thomas

3. Madhavikutty

4. Arya Pallam


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2. Sara Thomas

Question 7 : ‘ I Too Had A Dream ‘ is an autobiography of

1. Dr.Varghese kurien

2. Pandit Ravisankar

3. P.Govinda Pillai

4. Dr.Lekshmi Segal


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1. Dr.Varghese kurien

Question 8 : Original name of famous personality’ Vagbhadanandan’

1. Ananda shenoy

2. K.P. Karuppan

3. Kumara Guru

4. Kunjikannan


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4. Kunjikannan

Question 9 : ” It is better to light a candle than to curse the darkness” is the motto of

1. Bharat Scout and Guides

2. Red Cross

3. Amnesty International

4. Greenpeace


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3. Amnesty International

Question 10 : The first malayalee recipient of the Saraswathi Samman

1. Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai

2. Lalithambika Antharjanam

3. G. SankaraKurup

4. Balamani Amma


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4. Balamani Amma


Question 11 : The Vigilance Officer appointed by the government to investigate the cases of misappropriation in the society shall have the rank not below the rank of

1. Superintendent of Police

2. Inspector General of Police

3. Deputy Inspector General of Police

4. Deputy superintendent of Police


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3. Deputy Inspector General of Police

Question 12 : Maximum members of a board of directors of a primary co-operative society shall not be more than

1. 15 members

2. 21members

3. 13members

4. 7members


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1. 15 members

Question 13 : Who is the custodian of cash and other valuables of a Primary Agricultural Co-operative Society

1. Cashier

2. Secretary

3. President

4. Accountant


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2. Secretary

Question 14 : State Co-operative Election Commission conduct all elections of co-operative societies mentioned below except

1. Election of Board of Directors

2. Election of President and Vice President

3. Election of Special General Body

4. Election of Representative General Body


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3. Election of Special General Body

Question 15 : The co-operative Development and Welfare Fund shall not be utilized for

1. Utilizing for the developmental activities of these societies

2. Safe guarding the damages to their assets

3. Safe guarding the loss to their properties

4. Expenses incurred for opening branches


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2. Safe guarding the damages to their assets

Question 16 : The Registrar shall appoint as per Section 71 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act a person called

1. Co-operative Tribunal

2. Co-operative Ombudsman

3. Liquidator

4. Sale officer


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3. Liquidator

Question 17 : Which among the following Co-operative Societies, election shall not be conducted on ward basis

1. Urban Co-operative Banks

2. Urban Co-operative Societies

3. Primary Housing Co-operative Societies

4. Primary Consumer Co-operative Societies


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4. Primary Consumer Co-operative Societies

Question 18 : The immovable property acquired by a society through a sale by the sale officer for realization of loan amount shall be disposed within

1. 7 years

2. 3 years

3. 1 year

4. 2 years


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1. 7 years

Question 19 : Which among the following is a false statement in case of voting to a society

1. A member admitted in a Co-operative Society within 60 days immediately prior to the date of election shall not have right to vote

2. A nominal member shall not have right to vote

3. A depositor shall have right to vote

4. An ex-officio member on the committee shall have vote


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3. A depositor shall have right to vote

Question 20 : A Society shall dispose 10% of its net profit to

1. Reserve Fund

2. Member Relief Fund

3. Agricultural Credit Stabilization Fund

4. Co-operative Education Fund


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2. Member Relief Fund


Question 21 : Societies which are bond to keep fluid resources are

1. Societies having deposits

2. Societies doing Marketing business

3. Societies doing Consumer business only

4. Societies dealing coir products


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1. Societies having deposits

Question 22 : Among the following which is not the privileges of a Consumer Co-operative Society

1. Charge on land owned by its loanees

2. Exemption from income tax

3. Deduction from the salary of loanees

4. Exemption from stamp duty


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2. Exemption from income tax

Question 23 : The amendment of the bye-law shall have approval from

1. Chief Executive

2. Managing Director

3. President

4. General Body


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4. General Body

Question 24 : Rule 6 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act deals with

1. Registrar of co-operative society

2. Model bye-law

3. Amendment of bye-law

4. First General Body


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2. Model bye-law

Question 25 : Which type of societies are allowed to admit any other society as nominal or associate member

1. Coir Societies

2. Scheduled Caste Societies

3. Hand loom Societies

4. Hospital Societies


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4. Hospital Societies

Question 26 : Which of the following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor?

1. Achievement

2. Company policy

3. Promotion

4. Responsibility


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2. Company policy

Question 27 : Achievement motivation relates to

1. Need of the person

2. Knowledge of the person

3. experience of the person

4. aptitude of the person.


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1. Need of the person

Question 28 : A transformational leader is one

1. who is involved in organizational change

2. who provides new ways of carrying out management.

3. who inspires the corkers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better future

4. who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards for what they do


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3. who inspires the corkers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better future

Question 29 : Decision making does not include:

1. identifying the problem

2. evaluating alternatives

3. select a preferred alternative

4. making forecast


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4. making forecast

Question 30 : The most democratic form of oraganisation is

1. line

2. line and staff

3. functional

4. committee


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4. committee


Question 31 : Idenfify the wrong statement

1. leadership is the ability to influence a group

2. all leaders are managers

3. all leaders are not managers

4. all managers are leaders


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2. all leaders are managers

Question 32 : Which strategy would be effective when the new products have a counter cyclical sales pattern compared to an organization’s present products?

1. Forward integration

2. market positioning

3. Horizontal diversification

4. Market penetration


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1. Forward integration

Question 33 : What does Dog symbolize in BCG martrix?

1. high growth, high market share

2. low growth, low market share

3. low growth, high market share

4. high growth, low market share


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2. low growth, low market share

Question 34 : Specific, short-term statements detailing how to achieve an organization’s goals is known as

1. vision

2. mission

3. objectives

4. operational planning


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3. objectives

Question 35 : Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?

1. eye contact

2. jargon

3. yelling

4. mumbling


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1. eye contact

Question 36 : The factors that generate shareholder wealth are usually called

1. key factors

2. value drivers

3. present values

4. future cash flows


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2. value drivers

Question 37 : What does EVA stand for

1. Employee value analysis

2. Expected value arising

3. Economic value added

4. Economic value analysis


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3. Economic value added

Question 38 : A common method of measuring attitude of people is

1. in-depth interviews

2. observing people’s behavior

3. semantic differential scales

4. a lie detector


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3. semantic differential scales

Question 39 : Matrix structure of orgnisation violates which key element of organizational design

1. unity of command

2. chain of command

3. span of management

4. decentralisation


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1. unity of command

Question 40 : Authority and responsibility are ——— to each other

1. supplementary

2. inconsistent

3. contradictory

4. complementary


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4. complementary


Question 41 : An offer kept open for acceptance over a period of time is referred to as :

1. Counter offer

2. Cross offer

3. Standing offer

4. Specific offer


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3. Standing offer

Question 42 : The time limit for filing a complaint before the District forum under Consumer Protection Act, 1986,is

1. One year

2. Two years

3. Three years

4. There is no such limits


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2. Two years

Question 43 : Mr.A entered into a contract with Mr.B whereby Mr.A agreed to sell heroin an illegal substance, worth Rs.50,000 to Mr.B. This is an example for:

1. Void contract

2. Voidable contract

3. Quasi contract

4. Second Party Beneficiary contract


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1. Void contract

Question 44 : Section 172 of Contract Act deals with :

1. Bailment

2. Pledge

3. Indemnity

4. Lien


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2. Pledge

Question 45 : The outside third party who is brought into settle a dispute and has the authority to take a decision is called:

1. Legal expert

2. Government

3. An arbitrator

4. Mentor


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3. An arbitrator

Question 46 : Which of the following transactions does not come under the purview of bailment?

1. Delivering goods to creditor as security of loan

2. Delivering goods for repair with or without remuneration

3. Delivering goods for carriage

4. Placing ornaments in bank locker


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4. Placing ornaments in bank locker

Question 47 : The term of a patent is:

1. 10 years

2. 14 Years

3. 20 Years

4. 25 Years


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3. 20 Years

Question 48 : ‘Novation’ is a mode of discharge of contract by:

1. lapse of time

2. agreement

3. operation of law

4. performance of contract


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2. agreement

Question 49 : From the following identify a statement that is not true:

1. Principal is bound by the act of agent done within the scope of his authority

2. Authority given to borrow money makes the principal liable even if the agent borrows beyond authorised limits

3. Principal is liable for fraud committed by his agent acting in the course of his business

4. Authority given to sell goods authorises the agent to borrow money by pledging the goods


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4. Authority given to sell goods authorises the agent to borrow money by pledging the goods

Question 50 : Who is the Chairman of the Central Consumer Protection Council?

1. Prime Minister

2. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

3. Chief Justice of the High Court

4. Minister in Charge of Consumer Affairs


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4. Minister in Charge of Consumer Affairs


Question 51 : Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner under ‘The Right to Information Act, 2005’ ?

1. Chief Minister

2. Governor

3. President of India

4. Chief Justice of Supreme Court


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2. Governor

Question 52 : The Consumer Education and Research Centre is located at :

1. Bombay

2. Ahmedabad

3. Kanpur

4. Delhi


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2. Ahmedabad

Question 53 : The damages that can be awarded even if the aggrieved party has not suffered any loss, is referred to as:

1. exemplary damages

2. special damages

3. ordinary damages

4. nominal damages


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4. nominal damages

Question 54 : From the following, identify the one which is not a main objective of ‘The Right to Information Act,2005;

1. To ensure greater and more effective access to information

2. To make the Right to Information Act more progressive,participatory and meaningful

3. To have provisions to ensure maximum disclosure and maximum exemption consistent with Constitutional Provisions

4. To provide for effective mechanism for access to information and disclosure by authorities


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3. To have provisions to ensure maximum disclosure and maximum exemption consistent with Constitutional Provisions

Question 55 : The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India was established in ————-

1. 1991

2. 1996

3. 1997

4. 2000


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3. 1997

Question 56 : Regulatory environment consists

1. Policies related to imports and exports

2. Policies related to distribution and pricing

3. (A) and (B) both

4. Cost of human resources


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3. (A) and (B) both

Question 57 : GDP consists

1. Per unit market price

2. Gross output of goods

3. Service

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above

Question 58 : Which one of the following is not a characteristic of capitalist economic system

1. Central economic planning

2. Interdependence

3. Occupational freedom

4. Consumer sovereignty


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1. Central economic planning

Question 59 : . EXIM Policy, 2002-07 started from

1. 31-03-2002

2. 28-03-2002

3. 1-04-2002

4. 2-04-2002


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1. 31-03-2002

Question 60 : The economic environment of a business includes

1. Economic System

2. Economic Policies

3. Economic Conditions

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above


Question 61 : The Finance Act 2012 gives income tax rates for Assessment Year

1. 2010-11

2. 2011-12

3. 2012-13

4. 2013-14


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4. 2013-14

Question 62 : The Environment Protection Act came into force from

1. 1986

2. 1987

3. 1988

4. 1991


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1. 1986

Question 63 : Which of the following is limitation of Environmental Analysis

1. Does not foretell the future

2. Not a sufficient guarantor of organisational effectiveness

3. Offers one basis for organisational learning

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above

Question 64 : Which of the following is not the advantage of socialism

1. Goal oriented economy

2. Eradication of exploitation

3. State Capitalism

4. No cyclical fluctuations


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3. State Capitalism

Question 65 : A mixed economy is …… a planned economy

1. Necessarily

2. Compulsorily

3. Statutory

4. Voluntary


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1. Necessarily

Question 66 : “A good environment is good business.” Who said ?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

3. Peter.F.Drucker

4. Dr.S.S.Rao


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2. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

Question 67 : SWOT analysis forming part of ………….

1. Strategy formulation

2. Long range planning

3. Short range planning

4. Strategy implementation


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1. Strategy formulation

Question 68 : The first Five Year Plan was launched in the year

1. 1950

2. 1948

3. 1951

4. 1956


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3. 1951

Question 69 : Indian Institute of Science is established by

1. Tata

2. Birla

3. Bajaj

4. Singhania


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1. Tata

Question 70 : According to BCG matrix a business which has a high growth rate but a weak market share is referred to as

1. Cash Cow

2. Dog

3. Star

4. Question Mark


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4. Question Mark


Question 71 : Who is the present Governor of RBI

1. Sri Osborne Smith

2. C.D Deshmukh

3. Duvvuri Subbarao

4. Raghuram Rajan


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4. Raghuram Rajan

Question 72 : Which is the first bank to introduce ATM?

1. Punjab National Bank

2. HSBC

3. Allahabad Bank

4. State Bank of India


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2. HSBC

Question 73 : Which bank is known as the Banker’s Bank

1. SBT

2. RBI

3. Punjab National Bank

4. Punjab National Bank


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2. RBI

Question 74 : An efficient capital market is one where

1. Transactions are cheaply and efficiently carried out

2. Security prices show smooth patterns of movement

3. Security prices always rationally reflect all relevant information

4. Security prices do not reflect all relevant information


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3. Security prices always rationally reflect all relevant information

Question 75 : IFSC is an ________ digit code

1. 8

2. 14

3. 12

4. 11


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4. 11

Question 76 : EFT stands for

1. Easy Fund transfer

2. Maintenance fund transfer

3. Paperless Banking

4. Electronic Funds Transfer


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4. Electronic Funds Transfer

Question 77 : ________ act as a consortium leader of the banking institutions in the district

1. Lead Bank

2. Social Banking

3. Core Banking

4. District Co-operative Bank


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1. Lead Bank

Question 78 : Cheque in circulation for more than six months fron the date of the cheque is a

1. Post dated cheque

2. Anti dated cheque

3. Stale cheque

4. Bearer cheque


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3. Stale cheque

Question 79 : ______ means signing on the back of a negotiable instrument with a view to transfer the title of the instrument to another person

1. Underwriting

2. Document

3. Instrument

4. Endorsement


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4. Endorsement

Question 80 : RTGS has been implemented in India w.e.f.

1. 26 March 2004

2. 13 May 2004

3. 26April 2005

4. 13 January2003


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1. 26 March 2004


Question 81 : First stock exchange in India is

1. NSC

2. BSC

3. Cochin Stock Exchange

4. Ahmadabad Stock Exchange


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2. BSC

Question 82 : Blue chip shares means

1. Those shares which are listed in the stock exchange

2. Those shares whose guarantee is given by Government

3. Those shares on whom dividend is paid at higher rate regularly

4. Those shares which are issued at first time


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3. Those shares on whom dividend is paid at higher rate regularly

Question 83 : Days of grace are allowed to

1. Demand Bill

2. Cheque

3. Time Bill

4. Promissory Note


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3. Time Bill

Question 84 : In India 14 commercial Banks were nationalized in the year

1. 1955

2. 1969

3. 1972

4. 1980


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2. 1969

Question 85 : Crossing of the cheque can be made by

1. Drawer only

2. Banker only

3. Any holder

4. None of these


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3. Any holder

Question 86 : Accounting principles are acceptable when they, in general, satisfy the basic norms

1. Usefulness and Objectivity

2. Objectivity and feasibility

3. Usefulness, Objectivity and Feasibility

4. Usefulness, Objectivity, Feasibility and Obligatory


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3. Usefulness, Objectivity and Feasibility

Question 87 : The term ‘playing safe’ relate to

1. Convention of conservatism

2. Convention of materiality

3. Realization concept

4. Going concern concept


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1. Convention of conservatism

Question 88 : Which of the following method does not consider as a Method of Depreciation?

1. Double Declining Balance Method

2. Mileage Method

3. Service Hours Method

4. Striking Product Method


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4. Striking Product Method

Question 89 : According to Rolland, Trail balance is defined as “the final list of balances, ———”

1. adjusted and totalled

2. totalled in a column form

3. totalled and combined

4. totalled and accumulated


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3. totalled and combined

Question 90 : The case Gurner V/s Murray relate to

1. Admission of a partner

2. Retirement of a partner

3. Death of a partner

4. Insolvency of a partner


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4. Insolvency of a partner


Question 91 : The term ‘credit’ derived from the Latin word

1. Credre

2. Creditum

3. Creditmn

4. Croditum


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1. Credre

Question 92 : Mr.A, Mr.B are partners. Their old profit sharing ratio was 3:1. Mr. A surrendered 1/32 of his share and Mr. B surrendered 3/32 of his share in favor of Mr.C. Calculate Sacrificing ratio of A & B.

1. 3/128:3/128

2. 93/128:29/128

3. 3/128:5/128

4. 5/128:3/128


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1. 3/128:3/128

Question 93 : As per section 128 of the Companies Act, managerial remuneration is

1. 11 % of Net Profit

2. 5 % of Net Profit

3. 10% of Net Profit

4. 4 % of Net Profit


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1. 11 % of Net Profit

Question 94 : Green Limited had total purchases of Rs. 80,000 during the year. The opening and closing balance of creditors were Rs.20,000 and 30,000 respectively. Payments made to creditors during the year were Rs received was Rs 2,000. The credit purchases during the year ———

1. 82,000

2. 72,000

3. 86,200

4. 86,400


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2. 72,000

Question 95 : The RBI appointed a committee under the chairmanship of K.B Chore in April ——— to review the working of cash credit system.

1. 1981

2. 1979

3. 1982

4. 1974


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2. 1979

Question 96 : Irrelevance theory of capital structure, assumptions does not include

1. No corporate tax

2. Cost of debt is constant

3. Cost of debt is lower than cost of equity

4. None of these


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4. None of these

Question 97 : A company expects a net income of Rs 80,000. It has Rs 2,00,000 debentures of 8% rate of interest. The equity capitalization rate of the company is 10 %. Compute overall capitalization rate according to N ignoring income tax.

1. 9 %

2. 8.3%

3. 8.52%

4. 9.52%


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4. 9.52%

Question 98 : A ‘Yen note’ floated in Germany is an example of

1. Euro bond

2. Yen bond

3. Floating rate yen bond

4. Euro commercial paper


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1. Euro bond

Question 99 : Research and Development expenditure is an example of

1. Capital expenditure

2. Revenue expenditure

3. Deferred revenue expenditure

4. None of these


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3. Deferred revenue expenditure

Question 100 : Section ———- for buy back of shares as per Companies Act 1956

1. 78

2. 79

3. 77

4. 81


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3. 77



Chief General Manager

Category Code: 296/2011

Question Paper Code: 1/2015/OL

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 27-01-2015

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