Laboratory Technician Gr II-2018(016/2018)



Department Health Services

Laboratory Technician Gr II

Question Paper Code: 60/2018/OL

Category Code: 016/2018

Date of Test 04-12-2018

Question 1 : Which is a biodiversity hotspot in India ?

1. Eastern Himalayas

2. Thar Desert

3. Eastern Coast

4. Ganga Basin


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1. Eastern Himalayas

Question 2 : Indian Institute of Advanced Studies is situated at

1. New Delhi

2. Kolkata

3. Shimla

4. Bengaluru


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3. Shimla

Question 3 : Black soil is normally found in

1. Sivalik Hills

2. Lakshadweep

3. Deccan Plateau

4. Northern Plains


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3. Deccan Plateau

Question 4 : Mahabalipuram is located in the State of

1. Telangana

2. Karnataka

3. Maharashtra

4. Tamil Nadu


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4. Tamil Nadu

Question 5 : The Play Neel Darpan was published during indigo revolt of Bengal by

1. Aurobindo Ghosh

2. Shisir Kumar Ghosh

3. Dinabandhu Mitra

4. Rabindranath Tagore


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3. Dinabandhu Mitra

Question 6 : Gadhar Party was formed by

1. Lala Har Dayal

2. Bagat Singh

3. S.C. Bose

4. Motilal Nehru


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1. Lala Har Dayal

Question 7 : Which is not a bird sanctuary in Kerala ?

1. Thattekkad

2. Kadalundi

3. Mangalavanam

4. Kottakkunnu


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4. Kottakkunnu

Question 8 : The capital of Tipu Sultan in Malabar

1. Arakkal

2. Feroke

3. Kappad

4. Tirurangadi


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2. Feroke

Question 9 : Kerala Kalamandalam is a

1. Deemed University

2. Private University

3. State University

4. Central University


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1. Deemed University

Question 10 : How many times Gandhiji visited Kerala during freedom struggle ?

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5


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4. 5


Question 11 : The Golden Ball Winner of FIFA World Cup 2018

1. Lionel Messi

2. Luca Modric

3. Kylian Mbappe

4. Eden Hazard


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2. Luca Modric

Question 12 : Tham Luang cave is situated in

1. Thailand

2. Indonesia

3. Philippines

4. Malaysia


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1. Thailand

Question 13 : Secretary of States of America

1. James Mattis

2. Mike Pompeo

3. Rex Tillerson

4. Condoleezza rice


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2. Mike Pompeo

Question 14 : President Ramnath Kovind previously served as the Governor from 2015 to 2017 of

1. U P

2. Bihar

3. Odisha

4. Jharkhand


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2. Bihar

Question 15 : Who is the `53^(rd)` Jnanpith Award winner ?

1. Balchandra Nemade

2. Raghuveer Chaudhari

3. Shankha Ghosh

4. Krishna Sobti


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4. Krishna Sobti

Question 16 : Malayali Social Union (Later renamed as Malayali Sabha) established at Thiruvananthapuram in the year

1. 1877

2. 1914

3. 1899

4. 1892


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1. 1877

Question 17 : Ayyankali was belonging to

1. Paraya family

2. Pulaya family

3. Cheruma family

4. Kanakka family


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2. Pulaya family

Question 18 : Pampadi Joseph published ‘Cheramar Dhoothan’ from

1. Thiruvananthapuram

2. Mannanam

3. Changanassery

4. Kayamkulam


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3. Changanassery

Question 19 : The organization established at Alppuzha by the inspiration Vakkamabdulkhader Moulavi

1. Lajnett-ul-Hamdani

2. Rauzath-ul-uloom

3. Lajnett-ul-Muhammadiyya Sangham

4. Dar-ul-Maarif


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3. Lajnett-ul-Muhammadiyya Sangham

Question 20 : Who established ‘Sidhashramam’ at Alathur ?

1. Poikayil Yohannan

2. Chattambi Swamikal

3. Pandit Karuppan

4. Brahmanada Sivayogi


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4. Brahmanada Sivayogi


Question 21 : Absolute zero of temperature corresponds to

1. `273.15^@` C

2. `-273.15^@` C

3. `0^@` C

4. `100^@` C


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2. `-273.15^@` C

Question 22 : On removing the valve, the air escaping from a cycle tube comes cool, because

1. It is an isothermal expansion

2. It is an isothermal compression

3. It is an adiabatic expansion

4. It is an adiabatic compression


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3. It is an adiabatic expansion

Question 23 : When a capillary tube of diameter 4 mm is immersed vertically in water, water rises upto a height of 5 cm. If

1. 4 cm

2. 5 cm

3. 8 cm

4. 10 cm


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4. 10 cm

Question 24 : Which of the following is the unit of Universal Gravitational Constant ?

1. `kgm^2` `s^-1`

2. `m^3` `kg^-1` `s^-2`

3. `kgms^-2`

4. `mkg^3s^-2`


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2. `m^3` `kg^-1` `s^-2`

Question 25 : What is the moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent to the circle of the ring ?

1. 3/2 `MR^2`

2. 1/4`MR^2`

3. 2/5`MR^2`

4. `MR^2`


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1. 3/2 `MR^2`

Question 26 : Which one of the following is not ferromagnetic ?

1. Cobalt

2. Nickel

3. Iron

4. Bismuth


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4. Bismuth

Question 27 : The equation for the displacement of a particle in SHM is given by x = 0.04 sin (`(2pi)/(0.01)` t + `(pi)/(4)`)

1. 8`pi`

2. 2`pi`/0.01

3. 4`pi`

4. `pi`/4


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1. 8`pi`

Question 28 : An electric dipole of length 2 cm is kept inclined at an angle `30^@` with an electric field of intensity `4xx10^5` N/C. If it experiences a torque equal to 8 Nm, what is the charge on the dipole ?

1. 4 mC

2. 1 mC

3. 2 mC

4. 6 mC


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3. 2 mC

Question 29 : Which of the following radiation is used to take photographs of distant objects ?

1. Microwaves

2. X-rays

3. UV-rays

4. IR-radiations


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4. IR-radiations

Question 30 : If earth shrinks to half of its present radius without any change in its mass, then how does the duration of a day changes ?

1. Decreases

2. Increases

3. No change

4. May increase or decrease


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1. Decreases


Question 31 : Rutherford conducted the scattering experiment using

1. `beta` -particles

2. `alpha` -particles

3. `gamma` -particles

4. photons


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2. `alpha` -particles

Question 32 : The hybridisation of carbon in diamond is

1. `sp^2`

2. sp

3. `sp^3`

4. `sp^3` d


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3. `sp^3`

Question 33 : Permanent hardness cannot be removed by

1. Adding washing soda to water

2. Boiling water

3. Adding calgon

4. Passing through resin


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2. Boiling water

Question 34 : The shape of methane molecule is

1. tetrahedral

2. linear

3. pyramidal

4. planar


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1. tetrahedral

Question 35 : Milk is an example of

1. foam

2. gel

3. emulsion

4. sol


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3. emulsion

Question 36 : Graphite belongs to which type of crystalline structure ?

1. Hexagonal

2. Monoclinic

3. Triclinic

4. Cubic


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1. Hexagonal

Question 37 : Germanium is refined by

1. distillation

2. liquation

3. electrolysis

4. zone refining


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4. zone refining

Question 38 : Non-sticky coating of frying pans is made by a polymer

1. PAN

2. HDP

3. TEFLON

4. Buna-N


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3. TEFLON

Question 39 : Which test is used for identifying phenol ?

1. Schiff’s test

2. Tollen’s test

3. Lucas test

4. Neutral ferric chloride


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4. Neutral ferric chloride

Question 40 : The anode of Laclanche cell is made up of

1. Zinc

2. Copper

3. Aluminium

4. Magnesium


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1. Zinc


Question 41 : Pollination by bat is

1. Hydrophily

2. Cheiropterophily

3. Malacophily

4. Entomophily


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2. Cheiropterophily

Question 42 : Pisum sativum belongs to the family

1. Solanaceae

2. Fabaceae

3. Malvaceae

4. Liliaceae


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2. Fabaceae

Question 43 : Pyramid of number is inverted in

1. Pond ecosystem

2. Grassland ecosystem

3. Parasitic ecosystem

4. Fresh water ecosystem


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3. Parasitic ecosystem

Question 44 : In which phase of cell cycle does replication of genetic material takes place ?

1. S phase

2. `G_0` phase

3. `G_(1` phase

4. `G_2` phase


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1. S phase

Question 45 : Which among the following represents non-sense codons ?

1. UAA

2. UAG

3. UGA

4. All of these


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4. All of these

Question 46 : The chief pigment associated with photosynthesis is

1. Chlorophyll b

2. Chlorophyll c

3. Chlorophyll a

4. Chlorophyll d


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3. Chlorophyll a

Question 47 : Hypercalcemic hormone is

1. Thyroxine

2. Thymosin

3. Parathyroid hormone

4. Adrenalin


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3. Parathyroid hormone

Question 48 : The excretory organs in cockroach is

1. Gills

2. Malpighian tubules

3. Book gills

4. Book lungs


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2. Malpighian tubules

Question 49 : Aorta arises from

1. Right atrium

2. Left atrium

3. Right ventricle

4. Left ventricle


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4. Left ventricle

Question 50 : The protein portion of the enzyme is

1. Apoenzyme

2. Prosthetic group

3. Co-factor

4. Coenzyme


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1. Apoenzyme


Question 51 : Which of the following cells is not a WBC ?

1. Neutrophil

2. Basophil

3. Manocyte

4. Thrombocyte


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4. Thrombocyte

Question 52 : The colouring agent used in antisera AB is

1. Methelene blue

2. Acriflavin

3. Eosin

4. Safranin


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3. Eosin

Question 53 : Name the anticoagulant present in purple coloured vacutainer tube

1. Heparin

2. EDTA

3. Sodium citrate

4. None of these


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2. EDTA

Question 54 : pH of buffered distilled water used in Leishman’s staining is

1. 6.8

2. 7.2

3. 7.4

4. 8


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1. 6.8

Question 55 : Blood collected in CPD-A can be stored in blood bank refrigerator for ______ days.

1. 35

2. 28

3. 21

4. 25


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1. 35

Question 56 : HDN due to Rh incompatibility can be prevented by giving anti-D antibody to Rh negative mother within ________ hours of delivery of Rh positive infant.

1. 48 hrs

2. 72 hrs

3. 24 hrs

4. 36 hrs


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2. 72 hrs

Question 57 : Which of the following is not an RBC diluting fluid ?

1. Normal saline

2. Dacies fluid

3. Turkes fluid

4. Toissons fluid


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3. Turkes fluid

Question 58 : During donor screening persons having history of malaria should be avoided for a period of _______________ years.

1. 1 week

2. 2 years

3. 1 year

4. 3 years


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4. 3 years

Question 59 : Bombay blood group persons have _________ antigen in their blood.

1. A Ag

2. B Ag

3. h Ag

4. H Ag


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3. h Ag

Question 60 : Depth of improved neubauer counting chamber is

1. 0.1 mm

2. .01 mm

3. .001 mm

4. 1 mm


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1. 0.1 mm


Question 61 : Name the enzyme estimation done in semen sample to analyse the secretory function of prostate

1. alanine transaminase

2. asparte transaminase

3. acid phosphatase

4. alkaline phasphatase


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3. acid phosphatase

Question 62 : The only cell in normal CSF is

1. Neutrophil

2. Lymphocyte

3. Manocyte

4. None of these


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2. Lymphocyte

Question 63 : Name the tests used to detect bile salt in urine.

1. Benzidine test

2. Fouchet’s test

3. Ehrlich’s test

4. Hays test


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4. Hays test

Question 64 : Ketone bodies in urine are

1. acetone

2. `beta` hydroxy butyric acid

3. Both 1 and 2

4. None of these


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3. Both 1 and 2

Question 65 : Normal sperm count is

1. 80 – 160 millions / ml

2. 40 – 80 millions / ml

3. 100 – 120 millions / ml

4. 140 – 200 millions / ml


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1. 80 – 160 millions / ml

Question 66 : Name the hormone detected in pregnancy.

1. ADH

2. GH

3. TSH

4. hCG


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4. hCG

Question 67 : Specific gravity of urine less than 1.010 indicates

1. Diabetes millitus

2. Diabetes insipidus

3. Diabetic ketoacidosis

4. None of the above


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2. Diabetes insipidus

Question 68 : ‘Glucose memory test’ is

1. GCT

2. Hb`A_1` C

3. GTT

4. PPBS


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2. Hb`A_1` C

Question 69 : Which of the following is not a renal function test ?

1. Serum urea

2. Serum creatinine

3. Cystatin – C

4. Total cholesterol


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4. Total cholesterol

Question 70 : Who is known as ‘father of microbiology’ ?

1. Louis Pasteur

2. Robert Koch

3. Alexander Fleming

4. Edward Jenner


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1. Louis Pasteur


Question 71 : Serum electrolytes are analysed using

1. Calorimeter

2. Flamephotometer

3. Spectrophotometer

4. None of these


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2. Flamephotometer

Question 72 : Van-den-Bergh reaction is used to detect

1. Serum creatinine

2. Serum urea

3. Serum bilirubin

4. Blood glucose


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3. Serum bilirubin

Question 73 : Cob-Web appearance of clot in CSF indicates

1. Jaundice

2. Haemorrhage

3. Spinal constriction

4. Tuberculous meningitis


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4. Tuberculous meningitis

Question 74 : _____________ is otherwise known as ‘bad cholesterol’.

1. LDL

2. HDL

3. VLDL

4. Chylomicrons


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1. LDL

Question 75 : All the following are motile bacteria except

1. E.Coli

2. Klebsiella

3. Vibrio

4. Proteus


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2. Klebsiella

Question 76 : Oils and grease can be sterilised using

1. autoclave

2. vaccine bath

3. hot air oven

4. none of these


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3. hot air oven

Question 77 : Solidifying agent of a culture media is

1. peptone

2. meat extract

3. sodium chloride

4. agar


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4. agar

Question 78 : ______________ is added to Mac Conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria.

1. Bile salt

2. Peptone

3. Neutral red

4. Agar


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1. Bile salt

Question 79 : All the following are examples of transport media except

1. VR medium

2. Thioglycollate medium

3. Stuarts medium

4. Amies medium


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2. Thioglycollate medium

Question 80 : Which of the following tests come under IMViC tests ?

1. Coagulase test

2. Catalase test

3. Citrate utilisation test

4. None of above


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3. Citrate utilisation test


Question 81 : The type of immunoglobulin which provides local immunity is

1. `I_g` M

2. `I_g` D

3. `I_g` G

4. `I_g` A


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4. `I_g` A

Question 82 : Confirmatory tests for AIDs is

1. Western blot

2. Southern blot

3. ELISA

4. CLIA


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1. Western blot

Question 83 : The bacteria which require ‘X’ and ‘V’ factors for its growth is

1. staphylococcus

2. haemophilus

3. brucella

4. salmonella


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2. haemophilus

Question 84 : RPR and VDRL tests are done for the diagnosis of

1. AIDs

2. Hepatitis

3. Syphilis

4. Malaria


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3. Syphilis

Question 85 : All the following are examples of blood parasites except

1. Plasmodium

2. Brugia malayi

3. Leishmania

4. Giardia lamblia


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4. Giardia lamblia

Question 86 : The fixative used for blood containing specimen is

1. Carnoy’s fluid

2. 95% ethyl alcohol

3. 10% formalin

4. Zenker’s fluid


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1. Carnoy’s fluid

Question 87 : Staining technique for assessment of hormonal status is

1. Pap stain

2. Shorrs stain

3. H & E stain

4. JSB stain


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2. Shorrs stain

Question 88 : The ‘word’ which refers to the ‘closeness of a result on repeated analysis’ is

1. accuracy

2. sensitivity

3. precision

4. specificity


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3. precision

Question 89 : ‘Mycology’ means the study of

1. bacteria

2. immunity

3. parasites

4. fungus


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4. fungus

Question 90 : Infections induced by a ‘physician’ is known as

1. iatrogenic

2. nosocomial

3. congenital

4. subclinical


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1. iatrogenic


Question 91 : The enzyme estimation done for the diagnosis of pancreatitis

1. acid phosphatase

2. amylase

3. alkaline phosphatase

4. creatinine kinase


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2. amylase

Question 92 : The basic component of Leishman’s stain is

1. cosin

2. malachite green

3. methelene blue

4. none of the above


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3. methelene blue

Question 93 : Name the blood cells increased in asthma

1. basophil

2. neutrophil

3. lymphocyte

4. cosinophil


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4. cosinophil

Question 94 : Intermediate host of plasmodium is

1. man

2. female anopheles mosquito

3. male anopheles mosquito

4. none of the above


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1. man

Question 95 : Which of the following is a Romanowsky stain

1. Leishmans stain

2. Giemsas stain

3. Jenners stain

4. All the above


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4. All the above

Question 96 : In wintrobes mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate is mixed in the ratio

1. 2 : 3

2. 3 : 2

3. 1 : 4

4. 2 : 1


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2. 3 : 2

Question 97 : The anticoagulant used in OFT is

1. EDTA

2. Citrate

3. Heparin

4. Sodium flouride-potassium oxalate mixture


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3. Heparin

Question 98 : The bacteria showing swarming growth is

1. E.coli

2. Salmonella

3. Proteus

4. All the above


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3. Proteus

Question 99 : To remove blood clots from blood pipette, it is immersed in

1. KOH

2. `NH_4OH`

3. INHCl

4. 3% acetic acid


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1. KOH

Question 100 : Incomplete antibodies are detected using

1. Electrophoresis

2. Coombs test

3. Agglutination test

4. VDRL test


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2. Coombs test



Question Paper Code: 60/2018/OL

Category Code: 016/2018

Exam: Laboratory Technician Gr II

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 04-12-2018

Department Health Services

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