Law Officer-2019(577/2017)



Law Officer (Part I, Part II)

Question Paper Code: 31/2019/OL

Category Code: 577/2017

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 01-08-2019

Department Kerala State Co Operative Bank Ltd

Question 1 : Identify the tense form of the underlined phrase: “That bridge has stood there for 800 years.”(1 mark)

1. Simple past

2. Past perfect continuous

3. Present perfect

4. Present perfect continuous


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3. Present perfect

Question 2 : Identify the correct spelling (1 mark)

1. Accustom

2. Accustum

3. Acustom

4. Acustum


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1. Accustom

Question 3 : Identify the word in which the letter ‘l’ is silent. (1 mark)

1. Plumb

2. Gnarl

3. Climb

4. Palm


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4. Palm

Question 4 : Plural of the word “proof” is: (1 mark)

1. Proove

2. Proofs

3. Prooves

4. Proofes


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2. Proofs

Question 5 : Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given below:”Ramu———– on the loose floor tiles.” (1 mark)

1. swaggered

2. stumbled

3. trudged

4. sneaked


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2. stumbled

Question 6 : Complete the saying: “——————- dogs seldom bite.” (1 mark)

1. Barking

2. Running

3. Stray

4. Big


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1. Barking

Question 7 : Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles: “Our boss is —- Hitler in —- office.” (1 mark)

1. an, the

2. the, an

3. the, a

4. a, the


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4. a, the

Question 8 : Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those give below:”The German football team —– congratulated for its performance.” (1 mark)

1. was

2. were

3. is

4. are


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1. was

Question 9 : Identify the word which means the same as the underlined phrase: “The marriage was put off.” (1 mark)

1. deceived

2. discarded

3. postponed

4. written


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3. postponed

Question 10 : Fill in the blanks with a suitable word from those given below:”He was ——- by her death.” (1 mark)

1. affected

2. effected

3. affection

4. effective


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1. affected


Question 11 : Name the author of the book, ‘Udyana Virunnu.’ (1 mark)

1. Vagh bhatananda

2. K.P.Karuppan

3. K.Kelappan

4. C.Kesavan


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2. K.P.Karuppan

Question 12 : The ‘Sahodaran Prize’ is given for: (1 mark)

1. Social reform

2. Literature

3. Performance in state legislative assembly

4. Journalism


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4. Journalism

Question 13 : Who propagated the concept of ‘Nirgunopasana’? (1 mark)

1. Chattampiswamikal

2. Ayyankali

3. Vagh bhatananda

4. Brahmananda Sivayogi


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3. Vagh bhatananda

Question 14 : ‘Jeevitam Oru Samaram’ is the autobiography of: (1 mark)

1. Annachandy

2. Annie Mascrene

3. Annie Thayyil

4. Akkamma Cheriyan


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4. Akkamma Cheriyan

Question 15 : Identify the winner of the first world cup football held in 1930: (1 mark)

1. Argentina

2. Brazil

3. Uruguay

4. Italy


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3. Uruguay

Question 16 : Name the microfinance scheme started by the Cooperation department of Kerala in association with the Kudumbasree Mission: (1 mark)

1. Sthree Suraksha

2. Ayalathe Souhrudam

3. Muttathe Mulla

4. Snehathanal


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3. Muttathe Mulla

Question 17 : India borrowed the idea of Judicial review from the constitution of: (1 mark)

1. USA

2. Canada

3. France

4. Ireland


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1. USA

Question 18 : Name the musical instrument associated with Bismillah khan:

1. Sitar

2. Sarod

3. Tabla

4. Shehnai


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4. Shehnai

Question 19 : Identify the country where the meeting between the US President Donald Trump and North Korean Leader Kim Jong-Un was held: (1 mark)

1. Malaysia

2. Singapore

3. Indonesia

4. Japan


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2. Singapore

Question 20 : The Programme initiated by the food safety wing of the Kerala State to seize formalin-laced fish is called: (1 mark)

1. Operation Sagar Rani

2. Operation Samudra

3. Operation Seafoods

4. Operation Matsya


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1. Operation Sagar Rani


Question 21 : The Union Council of Ministers is Collectively Responsible to ————- (1 mark)

1. The Rajya Sabha

2. The Lok Sabha

3. The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha

4. The President


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2. The Lok Sabha

Question 22 : Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ———- (1 mark)

1. Union of States

2. Unitary State

3. Federal State

4. Quasi Federal State


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1. Union of States

Question 23 : Article 226 of the Constitution provides the power to issue Writs to———- (1 mark)

1. The Supreme Court

2. The High Courts

3. The Supreme Court and the High Courts

4. All Courts in India


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2. The High Courts

Question 24 : Which Constitutional Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the Panchayat Raj Institutions in villages? (1 mark)

1. Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992

2. Constitution (72nd Amendment) Act, 1992

3. Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992

4. Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992


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3. Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992

Question 25 : Which among the following is a constitutional body? (1 mark)

1. National Commission for Schedule Caste

2. National Commission for Women

3. National Commission for Children

4. National Human Rights Commission


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1. National Commission for Schedule Caste

Question 26 : Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament? (1 mark)

1. The President of India

2. The Vice President of India

3. The Chief Justice of India

4. The Speaker of Loksabha


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4. The Speaker of Loksabha

Question 27 : Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India? (1 mark)

1. Federal Government

2. Presidential form of Government

3. Independence of Judiciary

4. Single Citizenship


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2. Presidential form of Government

Question 28 : The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on ——— (1 mark)

1. 15 August, 1947

2. 15 August, 1950

3. 26 January, 1950

4. 26 November, 1949


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4. 26 November, 1949

Question 29 : Whose decision is final if a question arises as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill? (1 mark)

1. Prime Minister

2. Finance Minister

3. Speaker of Loksabha

4. Chief Justice of India


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3. Speaker of Loksabha

Question 30 : Which Parliamentary Committee examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General on spending of public money by the government? (1 mark)

1. Public Accounts Committee

2. General Purposes Committee

3. Committee on Government Assurance

4. Estimate Committee


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1. Public Accounts Committee


Question 31 : Among the following which is not a suit of civil nature

1. Suit relating to right to property

2. Suit for damages to civil wrong

3. Suit for upholding dignity or honour

4. Suit for rent


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3. Suit for upholding dignity or honour

Question 32 : Which among the following is not an essential condition for applying Rule of Res Judicata

1. Matter in issue in the former suit is substantially and directly in issue in subsequent case

2. Former Suit and subsequent suit is between same parties or parties under whom they claim

3. Matter in issue in the former suit is collaterally and incidentally in issue in the subsequent case.

4. Parties must be litigating under the same title in the former and subsequent case


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3. Matter in issue in the former suit is collaterally and incidentally in issue in the subsequent case.

Question 33 : Suits for Torts to person or movable property cannot be filed in court in whose jurisdiction

1. defendant resides or carriers on business

2. defendant personally works for gain

3. Plaintiff resides or corks for gain

4. Tort is committed


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3. Plaintiff resides or corks for gain

Question 34 : For filing a ‘Representative suit’ these conditions is not essential.

1. Parties must be numerous

2. Parties should belong to same district

3. There should exist community of interest

4. Permission or direction by the court


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2. Parties should belong to same district

Question 35 : A plaint need not contain

1. Name of the court in which suit is filed

2. Facts constituting cause of action

3. Reliefs claimed by plaintiff

4. Law and Evidence relied upon by plaintiff


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4. Law and Evidence relied upon by plaintiff

Question 36 : Power of the Supreme Court to transfer cases under civil procedure code is dealt in this section

1. Sec 24

2. Sec 25

3. Sec 34

4. Sec 35


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2. Sec 25

Question 37 : Section of Civil Procedure Code dealing with ‘service of summons’ to defendants

1. Sec 37

2. Sec 47

3. Sec 35

4. Sec 27


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4. Sec 27

Question 38 : For a suit to be filed against government under CPC notice is essential under

1. Sec 24

2. Sec 80

3. Sec 90

4. Sec 26


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2. Sec 80

Question 39 : Temporary injunctions are issued by Civil Court under

1. Order 38 rules 1-4

2. Order 38 rules 5-12

3. Order 39 rules 1-5

4. none of the above


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3. Order 39 rules 1-5

Question 40 : In an interpleader Suit the real dispute between

1. Defendant only plaintiff is not interested

2. Between plaintiff only and defendant is not interested

3. Between defendant and plaintiff

4. None of the above


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1. Defendant only plaintiff is not interested


Question 41 : Right to Appeal is a

1. Fundamental right

2. Inherent right

3. Natural right

4. Statutory right


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4. Statutory right

Question 42 : There is no right to appeal against

1. decree passed by a court of original jurisdiction

2. Exparte decree

3. Consent decree

4. a preliminary decree


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3. Consent decree

Question 43 : Place of suing with respect to immovable property situated within the jurisdiction of different courts are contained in

1. Sec 16

2. Sec 17

3. Sec 28

4. Sec 19


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2. Sec 17

Question 44 : In execution of a decree for the maintenance under C.P.C, the extent to which the salary of a person can be attached is

1. Full salary

2. Half of the salary

3. One third of salary

4. One fourth of salary


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3. One third of salary

Question 45 : Pleadings under civil procedure means

1. written statements

2. Plaint only

3. Plain and written statement

4. none of the above


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3. Plain and written statement

Question 46 : The principle of res gestae is included in Indian Evidence Act in

1. Sec 10

2. Sec 6

3. Sec 27

4. Sec 32


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2. Sec 6

Question 47 : Indian Evidence Act has adopted the rule of

1. legal relevancy

2. logical relevancy

3. combination of legal and logical relevancy

4. None of the above


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2. logical relevancy

Question 48 : The principle of ‘Alibi’ is included as a relevant fact under Indian Evidence Act in

1. Sec 10

2. Sec 11

3. Sec 12

4. Sec 13


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2. Sec 11

Question 49 : Confession made to a police officer is

1. valid and admissible

2. inadmissible

3. valid if not made in the presence of magistrate

4. inadmissible except in cases covered by sec 27


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4. inadmissible except in cases covered by sec 27

Question 50 : Mark the statement which is false:

1. Dying declaration is a statement that deals with cause of death of deceased

2. Declarant should be in a fit state of mind

3. Dying declaration may be a statement as to circumstances which led to the death of the deceased

4. Dying declaration given to police officer is invalid


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4. Dying declaration given to police officer is invalid


Question 51 : Secondary evidence is defined in Indian Evidence Act in

1. Sec 63

2. Sec 61

3. Sec 64

4. Sec 62


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1. Sec 63

Question 52 : Examination after cross examination of a witness by the party who called him is called

1. Chief examination

2. Cross eaxmination

3. Re-examination

4. None of the above


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3. Re-examination

Question 53 : ‘Voir dire’ test relates to examination of

1. Expert witness

2. Interested witness

3. Child witness

4. Dumb witness


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3. Child witness

Question 54 : Maximum sentence that can be passed by Assistant Sessions Judge

1. 7 years imprisonment

2. Any sentence including death penalty

3. Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine

4. Imprisonment upto 3 years


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3. Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine

Question 55 : Which among the following statement is ‘false’

1. A private person can arrest a person committing a non bailable and Cognizable offence

2. A private person can arrest any proclaimed offencer

3. A private person can arrest any person seen in suspicious position

4. None of the above


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3. A private person can arrest any person seen in suspicious position

Question 56 : Inquiry for the purpose of Criminal Procedure Code is conducted by

1. Police officers

2. Court

3. Police officer above rank of DySP

4. None of the above


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2. Court

Question 57 : Under the code of Criminal Procedure the authority who is authorised to remove public nuisance

1. Sessions court

2. Chief Judicial Magistrate

3. Assistant sessions court

4. Executive magistrate


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4. Executive magistrate

Question 58 : The provision for anticipatory bail is provided in the Criminal Procedure code under

1. Sec 445

2. Sec 438

3. Sec 465

4. Sec 338


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2. Sec 438

Question 59 : An offence which is not triable summarily

1. Theft under Sec 379 where value of property is less than Rs.200

2. Offences under Sec 454 and Sec 456 IPC

3. Receiving stolen property under Sec 411 where value is less than Rs.200

4. Grievous hurt under Sec 320 IPC


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4. Grievous hurt under Sec 320 IPC

Question 60 : Under Sec 227 CrPC an accused can be discharged in a sessions case

1. After the trial

2. After framing the charge

3. Anytime during trial

4. Before framing the charge


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4. Before framing the charge


Question 61 : Section 2(1)(b) of SARFAESI Act provides that the net owned fund of an asset reconstruction company should:

1. Not be less than one crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify

2. Not be less than two crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify

3. Not be less than three crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify

4. Not be less than four crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify


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2. Not be less than two crore rupees or such higher amount as the Reserve Bank may notify

Question 62 : Which of the following is not a ground for cancellation of certificate of registration granted to an asset reconstruction company by Reserve Bank of India:

1. When the ARC fails to comply with any direction issues by RBI

2. When the ARC ceases to receive or hold any investment from a qualified buyer

3. When the ARC fails to maintain accounts in accordance with the requirements of any law

4. When the ARC has incurred loss for a year


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4. When the ARC has incurred loss for a year

Question 63 : Before which court/ tribunal an asset reconstruction company can file an application for enforcement of its security interest:

1. Debt Recovery Tribunal

2. High Court

3. District Court

4. National Company Law Tribunal


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1. Debt Recovery Tribunal

Question 64 : What is the time limit within which the secured creditor can initiate an action for enforcement of security:

1. If the liability is not discharged within 30 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor

2. If the liability is not discharged within 45 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor

3. If the liability is not discharged within 60 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor

4. If the liability is not discharged within 90 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor


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3. If the liability is not discharged within 60 days of receipt of notice from the secured creditor

Question 65 : When does an asset become non performing asset:

1. When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 60 days

2. When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 90 days

3. When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 120 days

4. When the instalment and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 180 days


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2. When the instalments and/or interest is not paid for a period exceeding 90 days

Question 66 : Which of the following is not an essential ingredient to initiate action for enforcement of security under the SARFAESI Act:

1. There must be a security agreement in which borrower is under liability of the secured creditor

2. There must be a default in repayment of secured debt or instalment thereof

3. The account must be classified as Non-Performing Asset

4. The security interest must be a least Rs.20,000


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4. The security interest must be a least Rs.20,000

Question 67 : Which of the following does not fall under financial asset as per the SARFAESI Act:

1. mortgage, charge, hypothecation or pledge of movable property

2. Any right or interest in the security, whether full or part underlying such debt or receivables

3. Any financial assistance

4. Prepaid expenses undertaken with respect to a movable or immovable property


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4. Prepaid expenses undertaken with respect to a movable or immovable property

Question 68 : What can a secured creditor do if his dues are not fully satisfied with the sale proceeds of the secured asset:

1. He cannot take further action. He has to satisfy his claims with the amount received after selling the secure asset

2. He can proceed against the debtor by filing an application before Debt Recovery Tribunal

3. He can proceed against the debtor by filing an application before the High Court

4. He cannot take further action unless the debtor agrees to the payment of the remainder amount


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2. He can proceed against the debtor by filing an application before Debt Recovery Tribunal

Question 69 : What is the time limit within which any person aggrieved by any measure taken by secured creditors can file an application to the Debt Recovery Tribunal:

1. Within 15 days from the date on which such measure had been taken

2. Within 30 days from the date on which such measure had been taken

3. Within 45 days from the date on which such measure had been taken

4. Within 60 days from the date on which such measure had been taken


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3. Within 45 days from the date on which such measure had been taken

Question 70 : Which court shall try offences punishable under the SARFAESI Act:

1. A Court not inferior to that of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of Second Class

2. A Court not inferior to that of High Court

3. A Court not inferior to that of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class

4. A Court not inferior to that of Principal Junior Civil Judge or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class


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3. A Court not inferior to that of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of First Class


Question 71 : The Limitation Act, 1963 applies to

1. the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir

2. the whole of India including the State of Jammu and Kashmir

3. the whole of India except the North- Eastern States of India

4. the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir and the North- Eastern States of India


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1. the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir

Question 72 : Under section 2(1) of Limitation Act suit includes

1. appeal

2. application

3. plaint

4. none of the above


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3. plaint

Question 73 : Section 6 of Limitation Act does not apply to

1. insolvent

2. minor

3. insane

4. idiot


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1. insolvent

Question 74 : Section 15 of Limitation Act excludes from computation of limitation

1. A period of notice

2. time taken in granting previous consent

3. time taken in grant of sanction

4. all the above


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4. all the above

Question 75 : Under section 25 of Limitation Act the easement rights are acquired by continuous & uninterrupted user

1. for 12 years

2. for 20 years

3. for 30 years

4. for 3 years


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2. for 20 years

Question 76 : Which section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949, makes the maintenance of SLR mandatory

1. Section 24

2. Section 25

3. Section 56

4. Both A and C


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4. Both A and C

Question 77 : Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act deals with restrictions on loans and advances

1. Section 17

2. Section 18

3. Section 19

4. Section 20


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4. Section 20

Question 78 : Which of the following Act deals with maintenance of a percentage of assets

1. Sec.22 of Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881

2. Sec.24 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949

3. Sec.22 of Companies Act, 1956

4. None of these


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2. Sec.24 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949

Question 79 : Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with licensing of banking companies

1. Sec 20

2. Sec 21

3. Sec 22

4. Sec 24


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3. Sec 22

Question 80 : Which of the following section of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with Reserve Fund?

1. Sec 15

2. Sec 16

3. Sec 17

4. Sec 18


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3. Sec 17


Question 81 : Which of the following models law was used by the Indian Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

1. Constitution of India

2. Guidelines of Supreme Court of India

3. European Commercial Arbitration Procedure

4. UNCITRAL, 1985


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4. UNCITRAL, 1985

Question 82 : Which among the following is the main objective of the Arbitration Act, 1996?

1. to comprehensively cover international commercial arbitration

2. to ensure that arbitral tribunal within the limits of court’s jurisdiction

3. to minimize the supervisory role of courts in the arbitral process

4. none of the above


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3. to minimize the supervisory role of courts in the arbitral process

Question 83 : An arbitral award made under Part 1 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall be considered as a

1. Domestic Award

2. Foreign Award

3. General Award

4. International Award


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1. Domestic Award

Question 84 : Arbitral proceedings commence

1. On the date on which a request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent

2. On the date when the respondent gives consent to the appointment of the arbitrator

3. On the date when the arbitrator issues notice of the parties

4. On the date when the statement of claim and written submission of defence is made


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1. On the date on which a request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by the respondent

Question 85 : Which one of the following is incorrect statement:

1. An arbitral award is a contract

2. An arbitral award must be in writing and signed

3. An arbitral award includes an interim award

4. None of the above


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1. An arbitral award is a contract

Question 86 : If there any conflict between Family Court Procedure Rules and Civil Rules of Practice, which would prevail

1. Family Court Procedure Rules

2. Civil Rules of Practice

3. Civil Procedure Code

4. None of the above


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1. Family Court Procedure Rules

Question 87 : Which provision of Civil Rules of Practice deal with Docketing

1. Rule 25

2. Rule 26

3. Rule 27

4. Rule 28


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2. Rule 26

Question 88 : Procedure of change of Vakkalath includes

1. Written consent of the existing pleader

2. Special permission of the court

3. Either A or B

4. None of the above


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3. Either A or B

Question 89 : As per R.43 of Civil Rules of Practice every —— shall be drawn up in first person and be divided into paragraph numbered consecutively and each para as nearly as may be shall be confined to a distinct portion of the subject matter.

1. Plaint

2. Written Statement

3. Affidavit

4. Interlocutory Application


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3. Affidavit

Question 90 : R.128 of Civil Rules of Practice deals with

1. Preparation of photographic copies

2. Marking Exibits

3. Deposit of Postage

4. Transmission of Records


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2. Marking Exibits


Question 91 : Where the mortgage is illegal for want of registration but the mortgagee continues in possession of the mortgaged property, a valid mortgage comes in existence after the expiry of:

1. 5 years

2. 10 years

3. 12 years

4. 20 years


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3. 12 years

Question 92 : Which of the following is not valid consideration for establishing a lease:

1. Rent partly in money and partly in kind

2. A stipulation to pay government assessment or taxes payable by the lessor

3. a personal agreement by a tenant to pay a certain sum or a certain quantity in kind to the landlord

4. None of these


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3. a personal agreement by a tenant to pay a certain sum or a certain quantity in kind to the landlord

Question 93 : Which of the following can be transferred under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

1. The right to mesne profits

2. A decree for mesne profits

3. A transfer of property to a prostitute for future cohabitation

4. A sub-lease of a farm for the retail sale of opium


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2. A decree for mesne profits

Question 94 : Which of the following is the definition of the term ‘Exchange’ as given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

1. When two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of the one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only

2. When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, either thing or both things being money only

3. When two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, either thing or both things being money only

4. When two persons mutually transfer the ownership on one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only


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4. When two persons mutually transfer the ownership on one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing or both things being money only

Question 95 : Which of the following is the presumption made for lease under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, unless a contract or local usage states otherwise?

1. The lease of immovable property for agriculture will be assumed to be for a period of three years

2. The lease of immovable property for purpose other than agriculture and manufacturing will be deemed to be for a period of one month

3. both A and B

4. neither A nor B


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2. The lease of immovable property for purpose other than agriculture and manufacturing will be deemed to be for a period of one month

Question 96 : Which of the following properties can be transferred under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

1. Salary of a public officer

2. Right to sue

3. both A and B

4. neither A nor B


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4. neither A nor B

Question 97 : In case a lease is made for a certain period mentioning that it is terminable before its expiration, without mentioning at whose option ________ .

1. Only lessee will have the option of termination

2. Only lessor will have the option of termination

3. The lease will be terminable only in case of mutual agreement

4. Both lessor and lessee will have option of terminating the lease


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1. Only lessee will have the option of termination

Question 98 : In English law, a minor cannot hold a legal estate in land, in India, a lease by a minor is ____ .

1. Valid

2. Void

3. Voidable

4. Depends on the facts of the case


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2. Void

Question 99 : In which of the following cases will puisne mortgagee has no right to redeem a prior mortgage?

1. Puisne mortgage is invalid

2. Puisne mortgage is time-barred

3. Puisne mortgage has lost all remedies of foreclosure

4. All of these


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4. All of these

Question 100 : The doctrine of lis pendens:

1. Is applicable on both movable and immovable property

2. Is applicable on both partial and absolute transfers

3. Is applicable on both specified and unspecified properties

4. All of these


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2. Is applicable on both partial and absolute transfers

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

Law Officer (Part I, Part II)

Question Paper Code: 31/2019/OL

Category Code: 577/2017

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 01-08-2019

Department Kerala State Co Operative Bank Ltd

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