Sr Lecturer in Genito Urinary Surgery-2018(147/2017)



Question Paper Code: 1/2018/OL

Category Code: 147/2017

Exam: Sr Lecturer in Genito Urinary Surgery

Date of Test 17-01-2018

Department Medical Education

Question 1 : The river in Kerala is known as “yellow river”

1. Bharathapuzha

2. Pampa

3. Kuttiadipuzha

4. Chaliyar


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3. Kuttiadipuzha

Question 2 : The direction of Kerala, where the Western Ghats is located

1. East

2. West

3. South

4. North


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1. East

Question 3 : Mahila Samrudhi Yojana Scheme was introduced in the year of

1. 1990

2. 1991

3. 1992

4. 1993


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4. 1993

Question 4 : Tsunami is a word of

1. English

2. Japanese

3. Chinese

4. French


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2. Japanese

Question 5 : Lalgudi Jayaraman is a master of

1. Sitar

2. Violin

3. Tabala

4. Veena


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2. Violin

Question 6 : Man made Reservoir Govinda Sagar is situated in

1. Hariyana

2. Punjab

3. Bihar

4. Himachal Pradesh


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4. Himachal Pradesh

Question 7 : Kudumbasree was launched on `17^(th)` May 1998 in the district of

1. Malappuram

2. Kozhikkode

3. Vayanad

4. Kottayam


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1. Malappuram

Question 8 : The first Muslim President of Indian National Congress (INC) was

1. Maulana Muhammed Ali

2. Hakkim Ajmal Khan

3. Badruddin Taiyabji

4. Maulana Abdul Kalam Asad


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3. Badruddin Taiyabji

Question 9 : Among the Chola king who had the title of Madurai Konda

1. Parantaka

2. Rajaraja

3. Rajendra

4. Kalikala


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1. Parantaka

Question 10 : Thalakkal Chandu Mammorial is located at

1. Edakkal

2. Mananthavadi

3. Panamaram

4. Sultan Batheri


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3. Panamaram


Question 11 : Kizhariyoor Bomb case is related with

1. Salt Satyagraha

2. Civil Disobedience Movement

3. Malabar Rebellion

4. Quit India Movement


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4. Quit India Movement

Question 12 : Name the poetry that is not a work of Kumaranasan

1. Nalini

2. Aksharam

3. Karuna

4. Veenapoovu


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2. Aksharam

Question 13 : Who was called as Lokmanya ?

1. Subhash Chandra Bose

2. Gopala Krishna Gokhale

3. Bhagat Sing

4. Bala Gangadhara Tilak


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4. Bala Gangadhara Tilak

Question 14 : Poykayil Sree Kumara Gurudeva is also known as

1. Chattampi Swamikal

2. Sree Narayana Guru

3. Kumara Guru

4. Kumaranasan


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3. Kumara Guru

Question 15 : The first film directed by Adoor Gopalakrishnan is

1. Swayamvaram

2. Olavum Theeravum

3. Athidi

4. Elippathayam


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1. Swayamvaram

Question 16 : The President of Venezuela is

1. Michel Temer

2. Nicolas Maduro

3. Hugo Chavez

4. Raul Castro


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2. Nicolas Maduro

Question 17 : Who was called Mannathu Padmanabhan as the Kerala Madan Mohan Malavya ?

1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Rabindranath Tagor

3. Sardar K. M. Panikar

4. K. Kelappan


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3. Sardar K. M. Panikar

Question 18 : Oval stadium in England is associated with

1. Foot ball

2. Cricket

3. Hockey

4. Golf


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2. Cricket

Question 19 : Ramnath Kovind, the President of India has saved as the Governor of

1. Bihar

2. West Bengal

3. Orissa

4. Maharashtra


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1. Bihar

Question 20 : Narasimham committee is associated with

1. Film

2. Industry

3. Tax

4. Banking


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4. Banking


Question 21 : Cause of congenital pelvi-urteric function obstruction include

1. Presence of an a peristalitic segment of ureter similar to that found in primary obstructive mega ureter

2. True ureteral stricture at PUJ, that is congenital

3. Kinks or valves produced by unfolding of ureteral mucosa and musculature

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above

Question 22 : Which of the following is typically associated with organic E. D. in contrast with psychogenic E.D. ?

1. Sudden loss of erections

2. Gradual decline in erectile ability

3. Situational erectile difficulty

4. Erection responses on awakening


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2. Gradual decline in erectile ability

Question 23 : The structure not located in retro peritoneum is

1. Asending color

2. Adrenal

3. Transverse color

4. Second part of duodenum


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3. Transverse color

Question 24 : All the following are true regarding Germ Cell Tumor (GCT) EXCEPT

1. It occures bilaterally approximately 15% of the time

2. Cryptorchidisism is associated with increased risk for GCT

3. Intratubular Germ Cell Neoplasia (ITGCN) is associated with high risk for GCT

4. GCT incidence may be high when there is a family history of Testicular cancer


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1. It occures bilaterally approximately 15% of the time

Question 25 : For minimising the gap between healthy urethral margins before anastamosis in pelvic fracture urethral injuries,

1. Excesion of Bucks Facia from corpus spongiosum

2. Mobilising the corpus spongiosum off the corpora cavernosa up to the corona of the glans

3. Dissection of intracrural space down to the pubis

4. Periosteal elevations infra pubectomy


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2. Mobilising the corpus spongiosum off the corpora cavernosa up to the corona of the glans

Question 26 : Regarding Bladder Pain Syndrome (BPS)/Interstitial Cystitis all the statements are true EXCEPT

1. A childhood presentation is extremely rare. The average age of onset is 40 years

2. Patients with BPS have a 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems than do patients without the

3. Bladder compliance in patients with interstitial cystitis is always abnormal

4. Urine Anti Proliferative Factor (APF) appears to have the highest sensitivity and specificity among the markers


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3. Bladder compliance in patients with interstitial cystitis is always abnormal

Question 27 : Cancer occuring in urinary intestinal diversion is most likely to occure in

1. Uretero sigmoidostomies

2. Ileal conduits

3. Colon conduits

4. Sigmoid conduits


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1. Uretero sigmoidostomies

Question 28 : Which of the following is NOT a contra indication for Testosterone supplementation therapy ?

1. Cogestive heart failure

2. Polycythemia

3. Breast Cancer

4. Angina pectoris


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4. Angina pectoris

Question 29 : Health related quality of life is best assesed by

1. Patient themselves

2. Sponses or immediate family members

3. Specialist caring for the patient

4. Specially trained examiners


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1. Patient themselves

Question 30 : Transuretero-ureterostomy is contraindicated in

1. Retroperitoneal fibrosis

2. Urothelial malignancy

3. Nephrolithiasis

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above


Question 31 : Hyper calciuria in sarcoidosis is

1. Absorptive hypercalciuria

2. Renal hypercalciuria

3. Recorptive hypercalciuria

4. None of the above


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1. Absorptive hypercalciuria

Question 32 : Most sigfnificant complication of PCNL is

1. Incomplete stone removal

2. Extravesation of irrigation fluid

3. Urinary tract infection

4. Hemorrage


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4. Hemorrage

Question 33 : A characteristic finding in angiomyolipoma is

1. Positive staining for vimentin

2. Unique cytokeratin expression pattern

3. Positive staining for Human Melanoma Black-45 (HMB-45)

4. Occasional aneuploidy


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3. Positive staining for Human Melanoma Black-45 (HMB-45)

Question 34 : Most common cancer after kidney transplantation

1. Skin

2. Cervix

3. Kaposi sarcoma

4. Thyroid


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1. Skin

Question 35 : The ideal site of meision in endo pyelotomy is

1. Anterior

2. Posterior

3. Medial

4. Lateral


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4. Lateral

Question 36 : The nerve likely to be injured is Psoas hitch is

1. Obturator nerve

2. Ilio hypogastric nerve

3. Genitofemoral nerve

4. Lio inguinal nerve


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3. Genitofemoral nerve

Question 37 : Indication for radiologic imaging in urologic trauma include all EXCEPT

1. All penetrating trauma

2. High impact rapid deceleration trauma

3. Adult patients with microscopic hematuria without shock

4. All pediatric patients with microscopic hematuria


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3. Adult patients with microscopic hematuria without shock

Question 38 : The stone most unlikely to be fragmented with ESWL

1. Calcium oxalate dehydrate

2. Calcium oxalate monohydrate

3. Struvite

4. Uric acid


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2. Calcium oxalate monohydrate

Question 39 : The most appropriate treatment for patients with renal tubular acidosis include

1. Thiazides

2. Sodium alkali

3. Potassium alkali

4. Aceto hydroxamic acid


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3. Potassium alkali

Question 40 : The preferred site of puncture in to the collecting system for PCNL is

1. Upper pole calyx

2. Posterior lower pole calyx

3. Anterior lower pole calyx

4. Upper pole infendibulum


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2. Posterior lower pole calyx


Question 41 : The siglemost important prognostic factor for RCC is

1. Tumor stage

2. Tumor grade

3. Tumor size

4. Histologic subtype


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1. Tumor stage

Question 42 : Struvite stones (infection stones) can be produced by all the organisms EXCEPT

1. Proteus

2. Klebsiella

3. E-Coli

4. Staphylococcus


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3. E-Coli

Question 43 : Para neoplastia syndromes in RCC include all the following EXCEPT

1. Hypertension

2. Polycythemia

3. Hepatic dysfunction

4. Hypothyroidism


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4. Hypothyroidism

Question 44 : Most accurate examination to document the presence of bladder stone is

1. Ultrasonography

2. Excretory urography

3. Computed tomography

4. Cystoscopy


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4. Cystoscopy

Question 45 : Which among the following has best prognosis among renal tumors ?

1. Sarcoma

2. Carcinoid

3. Small cell

4. Adult Wilms tomor


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2. Carcinoid

Question 46 : The best treatment option for a 9 year old female with right 2 cm renal pelvicstone and cystinuria is

1. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL)

2. Ureteroscopy with laser Lithotripsy and stone basketing

3. PCNL

4. Anatrophic nephrolithotomy


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3. PCNL

Question 47 : Which of the following statements is true regarding children with non-neurogenic neurogenic bladder ?

1. Constriction of urinary sphincter occures during voiding in a voluntary form of detrusor sphincter dyssyenergia

2. Gradual bladder de-compensation and myogenic failure result from incomplete emptying

3. Gradual bladder de-commpensation and myogenic failure result from increasing amounts of residual urine

4. All of the above


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4. All of the above

Question 48 : The estimated prevalence of vesico ureteric reflux in children with Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) is

1. 3%

2. 5%

3. 10%

4. 30%


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4. 30%

Question 49 : The most useful study for the detection of phychonephritis and cortical renal scarring is

1. DTPA scan

2. DMSA scan

3. MAG-3 scan

4. CT urogram


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2. DMSA scan

Question 50 : Which of the following is NOT considered a urachal anomaly ?

1. Patent urachus

2. Urachal cyst

3. Urethral-urachus fistual

4. Umbulical urachal sinus


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3. Urethral-urachus fistual


Question 51 : Most common intra abdominal injury associated with laperoscopic surgery is

1. Bowel injury

2. Liver injury

3. Vascular injury

4. Bladder injury


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3. Vascular injury

Question 52 : Accessory pudental artery usually arise from

1. Obturator artery

2. External liac artery

3. Superior vesical artery

4. Femoral artery


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1. Obturator artery

Question 53 : The mycobacteria which does not cause tuberculosis (TB)

1. Mycobacterium bovis

2. Mycobacterium microti

3. Mycobacterium africanum

4. Mucobacterium avium intracellulare


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4. Mucobacterium avium intracellulare

Question 54 : The effect of testosteron includes all the following EXCEPT

1. enhances sexual interest

2. increase frequency of sexual act

3. increases frequency of noct.erections

4. enhances fantasy induced or visually stimulated erections


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4. enhances fantasy induced or visually stimulated erections

Question 55 : The gold standard in measuring renal function in children with myelodisplasia is

1. Serum creationine

2. GFR as estimated by the Modification of Diet in Renal Risease (MDRD) equation

3. Serum cystatin

4. Nuclear renography


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4. Nuclear renography

Question 56 : Pre-ureteral venacava occurs due to the persistance of

1. subcardinal vein

2. supracardinal vein

3. posterior cardinal vein

4. inferior vitelline vein


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1. subcardinal vein

Question 57 : Regarding ask-upmark kidney, all are ture EXCEPT

1. it is always associated with renal artery intimal disease

2. hypertension and its sequelae like encephalopathy, retinopathy etc are commonest mainfestations

3. segmental vascular anomalies have been cited as the possible cause of hypertension

4. disease is primarily seen in young women and girls


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1. it is always associated with renal artery intimal disease

Question 58 : Hypercalcimia in Renal Cell Carcinoma(RCC) can be due to all the following EXCEPT

1. osteolytic metastalic involvement of the bone

2. production of parathyroid hormone like peptide by tumor

3. excessive tubular re-absorption of calcium

4. action of tumor derived 1,25-dihydroxyvitamine `D_(3)` and prostaglandins


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3. excessive tubular re-absorption of calcium

Question 59 : Drugs used for intravesical instillation in carcinoma urinary bladder include all the following EXcept

1. Bacille Clamette-Guerin (BCG)

2. Cisplatin

3. Mitomycin-C

4. Thiotepa


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2. Cisplatin

Question 60 : Bacteriuria without pyuria is indicative of

1. Infection

2. Colonisation

3. Tuberculosis

4. Stones


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2. Colonisation


Question 61 : Blood volume in children is estimated as

1. 55 ml/kg

2. 25 to 50 ml/kg

3. 70-80 ml/kg

4. 65-70 ml/kg


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3. 70-80 ml/kg

Question 62 : Which of the following groups of antibiotics include the best choice for treating an infected renal cyst in a

1. Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, chloromphenicol, fluroquinolones

2. Cephalosporins, trimethoprim-sulpha methoxazole doxycycline

3. Gentamycin, cephalosporins, vancomycin

4. Doxycycline, amoxicillin, gentamicin


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1. Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, chloromphenicol, fluroquinolones

Question 63 : Which of the following is confirmatory in the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis ?

1. Renal angio myolipoma and multiple renal cysts

2. Hamartomatous rectal polyp and facial adenoma sebaceum

3. Renal angiomyolipoma and cardiac rhabdomyoma

4. Mitral valve prolapse, renal angiolipoma and gingival fibromas


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3. Renal angiomyolipoma and cardiac rhabdomyoma

Question 64 : The most common type of retroperitoneal soft tissue sarcoma is

1. Liposarcoma

2. Leiomyosarcoma

3. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

4. Adrenal myelolipoma


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1. Liposarcoma

Question 65 : A 24 Fresh (Fr) Foley balloon catheter

1. Measures 24 cm long

2. Measures 8 mm in outer diameter

3. Measures 8 mm in inner diameter

4. Can hold 24 ml of fluid in the balloon


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2. Measures 8 mm in outer diameter

Question 66 : Regarding pre-operative renal artery embolisation all are true EXCEPT

1. It can cause shrinkage of arterialised Vena-caval tumor thrombus enabling easy removal

2. It prevents micrometastasis during surgery

3. It facilitates dissetion due to development of tissue plane odema

4. It causes fever, flank pans and nausea us upto 75% of patients


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2. It prevents micrometastasis during surgery

Question 67 : The most consistent segmental branch which supplies nearly 25% of the renal unit is

1. Apical (Superior) segemental artery

2. Anterior superior segmental artery

3. Posterior segmental artery

4. Basilar segmental artery


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3. Posterior segmental artery

Question 68 : Which of the following statement is true regarding Vitamin D metabolism ?

1. Vitamin D increases renal excretion of calcium

2. Dermally synthesised cholicalciferol must be hydroxylated by both liver and kidney for maximal potency

3. Vitamin D activity is mediated through membrane bound Vitamin D receptors

4. Dermally synthesised cholecalciferol is the most potent form of Vitamin D


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2. Dermally synthesised cholicalciferol must be hydroxylated by both liver and kidney for maximal potency

Question 69 : Regarding major pelvic urologic surgery all are true EXCEPT

1. Warfarin may be stopped 5 days before the surgery

2. Aspirin and clopidogrel should be discontinued 7 days before surgery

3. Fresh Frozen plasma is not useful in immediate reversal of warfarin and replacement of specific clotting factors

4. Hypothermia results in increased blood loss and increased wound infection


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3. Fresh Frozen plasma is not useful in immediate reversal of warfarin and replacement of specific clotting factors

Question 70 : Which of the following statement about cytokine therapy for metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) is true ?

1. Lymphokine-Activated Killer (LAK) cells augment the efficacy of both interferon α(IFNα) and IL-2

2. The complete response with interferon α monotherapy is 10%

3. The combination of IL-2 and interferone leads to higher overall response rates than either agent alone

4. All the above statement are true


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3. The combination of IL-2 and interferone leads to higher overall response rates than either agent alone


Question 71 : The most common histology in penile carcinoma is

1. Squamous cell carcinoma

2. Melanoma

3. Verrucous carcinoma

4. Adeno carcinoma


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1. Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 72 : Cause of enteric hyper oxaluria is

1. Excessive oxalate intake

2. Reduced excretion of oxalate

3. Fat malabsorption

4. Increased dietary fat


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3. Fat malabsorption

Question 73 : The only segment of urethra that does not have transitional epithelium is

1. Prostatic urethra

2. Fossa navicularis

3. Bulbar urethra

4. Membraneous urethra


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2. Fossa navicularis

Question 74 : An advantage of supine versus prone position for percutaneous renal surgery is

1. Improved pulmonary mechanics

2. Easier entry in to upper pole calyx

3. Easier entry in to posterior calyx

4. Reduced pressure in the collecting system


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4. Reduced pressure in the collecting system

Question 75 : Transplant between two siblings who are Histocompatability Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) identical (perfect class I

1. Direct antigen presentation

2. Indirect antigen presentation

3. Difference is complement proteins

4. Differences in numbers of circulating platelets


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2. Indirect antigen presentation

Question 76 : The normal baseline or resting ureteral pressure is

1. 0-5 cm `H_(2)O`

2. 5-10 cm `H_(2)O`

3. 10-15 cm `H_(2)O`

4. 15-20 cm `H_(2)O`


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1. 0-5 cm `H_(2)O`

Question 77 : The feature associated with worst survival in children with wilms tumor is

1. diffuse tumor spill

2. diffuse anaplasia

3. incomplete tumor resection

4. lung metastasis


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2. diffuse anaplasia

Question 78 : The radiographic study most useful to detect renal injury is

1. Intravenous Pyelogram (IUP)

2. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of abdomen

3. Focused Assessment with Sonagraphy for trauma (FAST) ultrasound

4. Triphasic abdominal Computed Tomography (CT)


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4. Triphasic abdominal Computed Tomography (CT)

Question 79 : Adolescent urology is defined as the care of patients

1. From 10-19 years old

2. From puberty until death

3. From puberty to 25 years old

4. From 14-25 years old for males and from 12 to 21 years for female


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2. From puberty until death

Question 80 : Which of the following is true regarding Mullerian Inhibiting Substance (MIS) ?

1. it is secreted by the fetal leydig cells

2. it acts systemically to produce Mullerian regression

3. it functions normally in patients with hernia uteri inguinal

4. it is secreted at 7-8 weeks of gestation representing the initial endocrine function of the fetal testis


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4. it is secreted at 7-8 weeks of gestation representing the initial endocrine function of the fetal testis


Question 81 : The mean age of a child with vaginal rhabdomyosarcoma is

1. younger than 2 years

2. 2-4 years

3. 4-8 years

4. 8-12 years


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1. younger than 2 years

Question 82 : Hydrocele formation after varicocele ligation is least likely after

1. retroperitoneal ligation

2. subinguinal ligation

3. microscopic inguinal ligation

4. transvenous embolisation


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4. transvenous embolisation

Question 83 : All of the following are true regarding Pollakiuria EXCEPT

1. it may be associated with a history of recent death or life threatening event in the family

2. it is always associated with urinary tract infection or polyuria

3. affected child may have very high day time frequency, even as high as 50 times per day

4. Absence of nocturnal frequency differentiates it from Overactive Bladder (OAB)


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2. it is always associated with urinary tract infection or polyuria

Question 84 : Which of the following disease has the highest chance of developing Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) ?

1. Von Hippel-Lindau desease

2. Acquired renal cystic desease

3. Tuferous sclerosis

4. ADPKD


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1. Von Hippel-Lindau desease

Question 85 : The test with highest sensitivity to detect Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) is

1. Leukocyte esterase

2. Urinary nitrite

3. Urinary nitrate

4. Serum procalcitonin


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1. Leukocyte esterase

Question 86 : Antibiotic prophylaxis for a major operation is best

1. Administered 1 hr. before surgery incision

2. Administered the night before surgery

3. Administered following incision

4. Administered immediately ofter completing surgery


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1. Administered 1 hr. before surgery incision

Question 87 : Technetium 99 m (99m Te) Dimercapto Succinic Acid (DMSA) is taken up by which renal cell ` `

1. Glomerulus

2. Proximal tubule

3. Distal tubule

4. Collecting tubule


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2. Proximal tubule

Question 88 : The fetal kidney develops from

1. Paraxial mesoderm

2. Intermediate mesoderm

3. Lateral mesoderm

4. Neural tube


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2. Intermediate mesoderm

Question 89 : Regarding sipuleucel T vaccine, all the follwing are true, EXCEPT

1. It is a treatment option for patients with minimally or asymptomatic prostate cancer

2. Sipuleucel-T causes marked symptomatic relief in patients with bone pains

3. The drug was approved based onthe survival benefit compared to place bo

4. Sipuleucel-T will not cause any meaningful PSA decline


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2. Sipuleucel-T causes marked symptomatic relief in patients with bone pains

Question 90 : The non steroidal antiandrogen associated with interstitial pneumonetis and delayed adaption to darkness after

1. Bicalutamide

2. Nilutamide

3. Flutamide

4. Cyproterone acetate


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2. Nilutamide


Question 91 : The most common malignant tumor associated with bladder diverticula is

1. Urothelial carcinoma

2. Adeno carcinoma

3. Squamous cell carcinoma

4. Sarcoma


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1. Urothelial carcinoma

Question 92 : Which of the biomarkers has the greatest specificity for the presence of prostate cancer in patients with

1. PCA 3

2. TMPRSS 2 : ERG

3. F-PSA

4. 4 Kscore


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2. TMPRSS 2 : ERG

Question 93 : A fourtyeight years old women who had abdominal hysterotomy 2 months back presents for evaluation of clear

1. Vesico vaginal fistula

2. Uretero vaginal fistula

3. Peritoneo vaginal fistula

4. Vesico uterine fistula


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3. Peritoneo vaginal fistula

Question 94 : The key elements of abdominal sacrocolpopexy do NOT include

1. use of permanent monofilamentmesh

2. Secure fixation to the sacral promontory

3. Secure fixation to the vaginal cuff

4. Use of a biologic graft


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4. Use of a biologic graft

Question 95 : The consistent advantage of laperoscopic/robotic prostatectomy over open prostatectomy is

1. Less bleeding

2. Less urinary incontinence

3. Preservation of erectle function

4. Less post operative pain


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1. Less bleeding

Question 96 : The test with highest positive predictive value in prostate cancer is

1. Digital Rectal Examination (DRE)

2. PSA

3. Transrectal Ultrasonography (TRUS)

4. Human Glandular Kallikrein (hKz)


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2. PSA

Question 97 : Significant probability of disease recurrence and risk of secondary graft dysfunction can occure in all the

1. Chronic glomerulonephritis

2. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

3. Haemolytic uremic syndrome

4. Primary oxalosis


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1. Chronic glomerulonephritis

Question 98 : Foley Y-V pyloplasty is useful in

1. anterior crossing vessel

2. high ureteral insertion

3. redundant renal pelvis

4. small intra renal pelvis


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2. high ureteral insertion

Question 99 : A patient with serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL requires renal angiography. The best way to protect renal function is

1. saline diuresis

2. pre-study mannitol

3. furosemide before study

4. dopamine throughout the study


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1. saline diuresis

Question 100 : The most common bacteria causing xantho-granulomatous pylonephritis is

1. E. Coli

2. Proteus mirabilus

3. Pseudomonas

4. Klebsiella


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2. Proteus mirabilus



Question Paper Code: 1/2018/OL

Category Code: 147/2017

Exam: Sr Lecturer in Genito Urinary Surgery

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 17-01-2018

Department Medical Education

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