Assistant Professor in Paediatrics-123/2018



Category Code: 123/2018

Assistant Professor in Paediatrics

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 27-03-2019

Department Medical Education

Alphacode A

Question 1 : Who among the following person was appointed as the constitutional adviser to the Indian Constituent Assembly?

1. C. Rajagopalachari

2. G.V. Mavalankar

3. Benegal Narsing Rao

4. Balwantrai Mehta


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3. Benegal Narsing Rao

Question 2 : The Indian constitution borrowed the idea of ‘single citizenship’ from

1. Canada

2. Britain

3. France

4. Germany


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2. Britain

Question 3 : Which Article of the Indian constitution is related with the ‘Abolition of untouchability’?

1. Article 17

2. Article 20

3. Article 12

4. Article 15


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1. Article 17

Question 4 : What is the time limit to get the information under R.T.I. Act of 2005?

1. 7 days

2. 14 days

3. 45 days

4. 30 days


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4. 30 days

Question 5 : When was the National Food Security Act passed?

1. 2013

2. 2007

3. 2009

4. 2012


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1. 2013

Question 6 : Who among the following started the system “A school along with every church” to make education available to all sects of people?

1. Herman Gundert

2. Edward Brennen

3. Rev. Meed

4. Rev. Fr Kuriakose-Elias Chavara


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4. Rev. Fr Kuriakose-Elias Chavara

Question 7 : The first General Secretary of S.N.D.P is

1. Sree Narayana Guru

2. Kumaranasan

3. N. Krishnan

4. C.V. Kunhiraman


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2. Kumaranasan

Question 8 : Who among the following person became the martyr in the Paliyam Sathyagraha of 1947-’48?

1. Velukkutty Arayan

2. A.G. Velayudhan

3. C. Kesavan

4. C.V. Kunhiraman


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2. A.G. Velayudhan

Question 9 : Who was the leader of the Kayal Sammelanam of 1913, a meeting against the restriction for lower caste people in assembling any common place?

1. Pandit K.P. Karuppan

2. Sahodaran Ayyappan

3. Ayyankali

4. Dr. Palpu


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1. Pandit K.P. Karuppan

Question 10 : The channar agitation took place during the time of which Travancore king

1. Avittom Thirunal Balaramavarama I

2. Chithira Thirunal Balaramavarma II

3. Sreemoolam Thirunal Ramavarma

4. Uthram Thirunal Marthandavarma


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4. Uthram Thirunal Marthandavarma


Question 11 : The founder of the Ezhava Mahasabha is

1. C. Kesavan

2. Nataraja Guru

3. Dr. Palpu

4. Bodhananda Swamikal


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3. Dr. Palpu

Question 12 : Who was the volunteer captain of the Guruvayoor Satyagraha?

1. K. Kelappan

2. P. Krishnapillai

3. A.K. Gopalan

4. Mannath Padmanabhan


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3. A.K. Gopalan

Question 13 : Who is known as the Father of Malayalam journalism?

1. Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishna Pillai

2. Chengulathu Kunhirama Menon

3. Kandathil Varghese Mappilai

4. Vengayil Kunhiraman Nayanar


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2. Chengulathu Kunhirama Menon

Question 14 : Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Academy is located at

1. Kannur

2. Thiruvananthapuram

3. Ernakulam

4. Thrissur


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4. Thrissur

Question 15 : Who among the following person is known as the ‘Jhansi Rani of Travancore’?

1. Accamma Cherian

2. Parvathi Nenmenimangalam

3. A.V. Kuttimalu Amma

4. Arya Pallam


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1. Accamma Cherian

Question 16 : When is the National Science Day?

1. February 28

2. January 11

3. December 11

4. September 13


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1. February 28

Question 17 : Who wrote the poem ‘Ente Gurunathan’ in praising Mahatma Gandhi?

1. Ulloor S. Parameswara Iyer

2. Vallathol Narayana Menon

3. G. Sankara Kurup

4. Changampuzha Krishnapillai


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2. Vallathol Narayana Menon

Question 18 : Who was the founder and publisher of the newspaper ‘Swadeshabhimani’?

1. Kuttippuzha Krishnapillai

2. Swadeshabhimani Ramakrishnapillai

3. Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi

4. Kesari Balakrishnapillai


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3. Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi

Question 19 : Which of the following country will host the FIFA 2022 World Cup Football?

1. Sharjah

2. China

3. Qatar

4. Russia


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3. Qatar

Question 20 : ‘Madad’ is the name given to the recent Flood Relief Operation by the

1. Navy

2. Airforce

3. Fishermen

4. Army


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1. Navy


Question 21 : Commonest aetiology for chronic kidney disease in children

1. Congenital anomaly of kidney and urinary tract

2. Haemolytic uremic syndrome

3. Focal segmental glomerular sclerosis

4. IgA Nephropathy


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1. Congenital anomaly of kidney and urinary tract

Question 22 : In minimal change disease in children after the first remission what is the percentage of relapse

1. 10-20%

2. 30-40%

3. 50-60%

4. 70-75%


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4. 70-75%

Question 23 : Megalocornea is defined as a non progressive symmetric condition characterized by an enlarged cornea more than

1. 10 mm

2. 12 mm

3. 14 mm

4. 8 mm


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2. 12 mm

Question 24 : Clearing of the external auditory canal is done by all except one

1. Self-cleaning by the squamous migration of the ear canal skin

2. Parental clearing of the cerumen with cotton swab

3. By the surgical head of the otoscope

4. Gentle suction with a suction tube


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2. Parental clearing of the cerumen with cotton swab

Question 25 : The duration of treatment of acute otitis media in children is

1. 7 days

2. 5 days

3. 10 days

4. 14 days


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3. 10 days

Question 26 : In FSGS pathological changes are most prominent in glomeruli located at

1. outer cortex

2. middle cortex

3. corticomedullary junction

4. inner cortex


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3. corticomedullary junction

Question 27 : Tonsil is derived from

1. 2nd cleft

2. 3rd cleft

3. 2nd pouch

4. 1st pouch


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3. 2nd pouch

Question 28 : Cetyl trimethyl ammonium Bromide test is done for

1. Phenylketonuria

2. Mucopolysaccharidosis

3. Maple syrup urine disease

4. Lactic acidosis


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2. Mucopolysaccharidosis

Question 29 : Which one of the following features is a factor in the pathogenesis of (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria) PNH?

1. an acquired mutation in the ANK1 gene

2. defective haemoglobin

3. reduced expression of CD55 and CD59 on the surface of hematopoietic cells

4. weakened interaction between the red cell membrane and the cytoskeleton


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3. reduced expression of CD55 and CD59 on the surface of hematopoietic cells

Question 30 : In nutritional anaemia the first parameter most often altered

1. MCV

2. MCH

3. RDW

4. Haemoglobin


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3. RDW


Question 31 : The long antero posterior diameter of the eye causes

1. astigmatism

2. amblyopia

3. myopia

4. hyperopia


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3. myopia

Question 32 : The time limit for infusion of platelet concentrate from start to completion is

1. within 2 hours

2. within 20 mts

3. within 4 hours

4. within 1 hour


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2. within 20 mts

Question 33 : When an individual with multiple cognitive disabilities has extraordinary proficiency in one isolated skill, this is known as

1. Rainman syndrome

2. Asperger syndrome

3. Intellectual isolation

4. Savant syndrome


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4. Savant syndrome

Question 34 : In new-born with galactosemea which is the organism producing sepsis

1. Streptococcus

2. Staphylococcus

3. E.coli

4. Klebsiella


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3. E.coli

Question 35 : Which of the following is a topographical model of mind by Freud?

1. Id-Ego-Supergo

2. Unconscious-Preconscious-Conscious

3. Regression-repression-suppression

4. Denial-Rationalization-Projection


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2. Unconscious-Preconscious-Conscious

Question 36 : Which one of the following investigation is most likely to identify a specific genetic cause in a dysmorphic child?

1. PCR

2. Family history

3. Birth history

4. Microarray


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4. Microarray

Question 37 : The laboratory test useful for assessing the function of vWf is

1. platelet aggregation test

2. prothrombin time

3. ristocetin aggregation test

4. clotting time


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3. ristocetin aggregation test

Question 38 : Which one of the following is not a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

1. older sibling with DDH

2. the presence of spina bifida

3. female gender

4. severe ologohydraminos


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2. the presence of spina bifida

Question 39 : Subcutaneous fat necrosis in newborn is associated with

1. hypernatremia

2. hypocalemea

3. hypercalcemea

4. hyponatremea


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3. hypercalcemea

Question 40 : Stein bergs sign is seen in

1. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

2. Ehlers Danlos syndrome

3. Marfan syndrome

4. Blooms syndrome


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3. Marfan syndrome


Question 41 : Darier’s sign is seen in

1. Dermatophytosis

2. Histiocytosis

3. Mastocytosis

4. Pemphigus


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3. Mastocytosis

Question 42 : Child with frog like position and resistance to move the limbs has

1. Scurvy

2. Rickets

3. Trauma

4. Congenital dislocation


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1. Scurvy

Question 43 : Paniculitis is

1. Infection of the subcutaneous fat

2. Infection of the hair follicle

3. Inflammation of epidermis

4. Infection of the sebaceous glands


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1. Infection of the subcutaneous fat

Question 44 : When does a child walk up and down stairs without help?

1. 13 months

2. 15 months

3. 18 months

4. 24 months


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4. 24 months

Question 45 : When do children perform a unilateral reach?

1. 4 months

2. 6 months

3. 7 months

4. 8 months


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2. 6 months

Question 46 : Net protein utilisation of egg is

1. 100

2. 95

3. 90

4. 80


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1. 100

Question 47 : The term which encompasses the provision of splints and appliances which improve the function and appearance of a patient

1. Orthosis

2. Prosthetics

3. Orthotics

4. Walking aids


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3. Orthotics

Question 48 : Profound hearing loss is hearing loss

1. above 40 decibels

2. above 90 db

3. above 110 db

4. above 60 db


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2. above 90 db

Question 49 : Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function is called

1. disability

2. handicap

3. impairement

4. damage


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3. impairement

Question 50 : A 5 month old presented with hypoglycaemia, mild growth retardation, micropenis, the diagnosis can be

1. Growth hormone deficiency

2. Fatty acid oxidation defect

3. Glycogen storage disorder

4. Hyperinsulinism


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1. Growth hormone deficiency


Question 51 : The recurrence risk in AD inheritance is

1. 50%

2. 25%

3. 75%

4. 100%


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1. 50%

Question 52 : Adrenal calcification is seen in all except

1. Wolman syndrome

2. In Cushing syndrome

3. In those who recover from Water-house-Friederichsen syndrome

4. In neuroblastoma


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2. In Cushing syndrome

Question 53 : The “gold standard” for the treatment of retinopathy of prematurity is

1. Vitrectomy

2. Anti VEGF agent Bevacizumab

3. Cryotherapy

4. Laser photocoagulation


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4. Laser photocoagulation

Question 54 : Hall’s criteria for Down syndrome include all except

1. hypotonia

2. poor moro reflex

3. three fontanels

4. joint hyper flexibility


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3. three fontanels

Question 55 : Friedreich ataxia is caused by a mutation of a gene locus on which chromosome

1. Chromosome 4

2. Chromosome 9

3. Chromosome 14

4. Chromosome 19


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2. Chromosome 9

Question 56 : A boy with intractable seizures is referred for seizure management. A work up reveals mesial temporal lobe epilepsy with hippocampal sclerosis. What is the most appropriate management?

1. continuous intravenous benzodiazepine

2. ketogenic diet

3. temporal lobe resection

4. high dose phenytoin


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3. temporal lobe resection

Question 57 : Which of the following has the highest glycaemic index?

1. Biscuit

2. Potato

3. Dextrose

4. Bread


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3. Dextrose

Question 58 : Expressed and frozen breast milk before feeding the child can be

1. microwaved

2. thawed by tepid water

3. boiled

4. kept outside until it is warm


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2. thawed by tepid water

Question 59 : Principle of complimentary feeding includes all except

1. Introduce one food at a time

2. Iron containing foods are required

3. Sugar sweetened beverages should be given to meet energy requirements

4. Phytate intake should be low


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3. Sugar sweetened beverages should be given to meet energy requirements

Question 60 : All of the following meet clinical diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type-1 except

1. six café au lait spots more than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal individuals

2. two or more neurofibromas

3. one café au lait spot more than 10 mm in diameter in post pubertal individuals

4. two or more iris hamartomas


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3. one café au lait spot more than 10 mm in diameter in post pubertal individuals


Question 61 : Which drug is contraindicated in hepatic dysfunction?

1. erythromycin

2. ampicillin

3. cefotaxime

4. amoxycillin


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1. erythromycin

Question 62 : A child with severe malnutrition with severe dehydration and no evidence of shock WHO recommended fluid therapy is

1. RL with 5% dextrose

2. Half normal saline with 5% dextrose

3. Half strength Darrow solution with 5% dextrose

4. Oral or nasogastric Resomal


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4. Oral or nasogastric Resomal

Question 63 : In Pantothenate kinase associated neurodegeneration there is accumulation of ___________ in brain.

1. Copper

2. Iron

3. Zinc

4. Calcium


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2. Iron

Question 64 : Most common heart disease in foetal alcohol syndrome

1. VSD

2. ASD

3. Fallots Tetralogy

4. PDA


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2. ASD

Question 65 : Symptoms suggestive of imminent exacerbation of asthma include all except

1. increased day time cough

2. day time wheeze

3. night-time beta 2 agonist use

4. night time cough


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4. night time cough

Question 66 : The Phalangeal depth ratio in normal subjects is

1. <1

2. equal to one

3. >1

4. >1.5


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1. <1

Question 67 : Recurrent pneumonia is characterised by

1. 2 or more episodes in a single year

2. 6 or more episodes ever

3. 4 or more episodes in a single year

4. 4 or more episodes ever


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1. 2 or more episodes in a single year

Question 68 : Compared to the apex of the lung, at the base of the lung

1. Blood flow is lowest

2. Ventilation is lowest

3. V/Q is highest

4. Alveolar `”PCO_2″` is highest


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4. Alveolar `”PCO_2″` is highest

Question 69 : Preoperative fasting order for breast milk in an infant is

1. Minimum of 6 hrs of fasting

2. Minimum 4 hrs fasting

3. No fasting is required

4. Minimum of 2 hrs


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2. Minimum 4 hrs fasting

Question 70 : In central precocious puberty one is false

1. Osseous maturation is retarded

2. Greater diagnostic power when LH is obtained during sleep

3. Serum testerone levels are elevated

4. Hypothalamic hamartomas are the most common brain lesion causing central precocious puberty


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1. Osseous maturation is retarded


Question 71 : In Kocher-Debre-Semelaigne syndrome one is not true

1. The muscles are hypotonic

2. There is generalised muscular pseudohypertrophy

3. Girls are more affected

4. Affected patients have hypothyroidism of longer duration


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3. Girls are more affected

Question 72 : Highest incidence of pseudomenbranous enterocolitis has been noted with the use of

1. Cephalosporins

2. Carbepenems

3. Vancomycin

4. Clindamycin


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4. Clindamycin

Question 73 : In Klinifelter syndrome one is false

1. 80% of them have a 47, XXY chromosome compliment

2. Cryptorchidism is common

3. Adults have Gynecomastia

4. Serum LH and FSH concentration are low at round 13 years of age


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4. Serum LH and FSH concentration are low at round 13 years of age

Question 74 : Cyanosis with left axis deviation in ECG is suggestive of

1. TOF

2. Tricuspid atresia

3. Ebsteins anomaly

4. Trans position of great arteries


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2. Tricuspid atresia

Question 75 : Innocent murmurs one of the following is not a feature

1. Short ejection systolic murmur

2. Radiation to apex

3. Best heard in the left lower sternal border

4. Intensity of murmur changes with respiration


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2. Radiation to apex

Question 76 : Infective endocarditis is not seen in

1. ASD

2. TOF

3. VSD

4. MR


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1. ASD

Question 77 : Most common type of tracheo-oesophageal fistula

1. Type A

2. Type B

3. Type C

4. Type D


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3. Type C

Question 78 : In IgA nephropathy deposition of IgA occurs in

1. glomerular capillaries

2. glomerular mesangium

3. glomerular basement membrane

4. tubules


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2. glomerular mesangium

Question 79 : Which one of the following abnormalities most likely to be seen in Pulmonary function test in a patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis?

1. Decreased diffusing capacity of the lung for Carbon monoxide

2. Decreased functional residual capacity

3. Decreased residual volume

4. Decreased supine vital capacity


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4. Decreased supine vital capacity

Question 80 : Environmental enteric dysfunction has been associated with

1. Oedematous malnutrition

2. Tropical sprue

3. Mal rotation

4. Intucception


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1. Oedematous malnutrition


Question 81 : In Genu Verum the bow legs beyond ____________ years is pathological.

1. beyond 1 year

2. beyond 2 years

3. beyond newborn period

4. beyond 6 months


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2. beyond 2 years

Question 82 : The clinical definition of shock by WHO in resource limited setting is

1. cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse

2. cold extremities with weak and fast pulse

3. capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse

4. cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs


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1. cold extremities with capillary refill time more than 3 secs and weak and fast pulse

Question 83 : Management of early treatment failure in malaria include all except

1. Look for diarrhoea and vomiting

2. Treat with second line drugs

3. Consider it as resistant malaria

4. Do a rapid diagnostic test to see for fresh infection


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4. Do a rapid diagnostic test to see for fresh infection

Question 84 : The optimal mode of therapy now for EHPVO

1. mesentrico portal bypass

2. endoscopic variceal band ligation

3. endoscopic sclerotherapy

4. distal spleno-renal shunt


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1. mesentrico portal bypass

Question 85 : Pulmonary capillary blood from which lung unit has the lowest `”PO_2″`

1. V = 2 l/mt Q = 0.2 l/mt

2. V = 2 l/mt Q = 2 l/mt

3. V = 0.2 l/mt Q = 2 l/mt

4. V = 0 Q = 2 l/mt


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4. V = 0 Q = 2 l/mt

Question 86 : Fractional IPV is

1. 1/4th of a full dose

2. 1/5th of a full dose

3. 1/2 of the full dose

4. 1/3rd of the full dose


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2. 1/5th of a full dose

Question 87 : Thrombocytopenia is an AEFI of which vaccine

1. Measles

2. BCG

3. DPT

4. Hepatitis B


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1. Measles

Question 88 : Isoniazid preventive therapy should be given to child in all situations except

1. For all HIV infected children who are tuberculin skin test positive

2. All TST positive children who are receiving immunosuppressive therapy

3. A child born to mother who was diagnosed to have TB in pregnancy

4. Close contacts of index cases with proved DR-TB


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4. Close contacts of index cases with proved DR-TB

Question 89 : In Di-Georges syndrome which of these is not included in catch-22 mnemonic

1. Cardiac abnormality

2. Hyperthyroidism

3. Hypocalcaemia

4. Abnormal facies


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2. Hyperthyroidism

Question 90 : Anakinra acts on which interleukin and blocks its activity

1. IL 3

2. IL 4

3. IL 2

4. IL 1


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4. IL 1


Question 91 : Who recommended IV fluid for maintenance IV fluid all except?

1. RL with 5% dextrose

2. NS with 5% dextrose

3. 1/2 NS with 5% dextrose

4. RL


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4. RL

Question 92 : Drug of choice for carbapenemase producing carbapenem resistant organisms

1. Meropenem

2. Colistin with Meropenem

3. Vancomycin

4. Linezolid


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2. Colistin with Meropenem

Question 93 : Sign that remain useful for assessing dehydration status in children with severe acute malnutrition is

1. Loss of skin turgor

2. Eyes appear sunken

3. Child irritable

4. Eagerness to drink


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4. Eagerness to drink

Question 94 : The upstream markers in hemodynamic monitoring in critically ill child include all except

1. Blood pressure

2. Heart rate

3. Central venous pressure

4. Urine output


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4. Urine output

Question 95 : Within ADHD which of the following is not classified as a problem relating to hyperactivity-impulsivity?

1. Doesn’t appear to listen when being told something or spoken to

2. Experience difficulties in playing quietly

3. Talks excessively

4. Rather than sitting still, squirms in seat and fidgets


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1. Doesn’t appear to listen when being told something or spoken to

Question 96 : A simple screening test for B-cell defect is by the measurement of

1. IgA

2. IgG

3. IgE

4. IgM


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1. IgA



Question Paper Code: 7/2019/OL

Category Code: 123/2018

Exam: Assistant Professor in Paediatrics

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 27-03-2019

Department Medical Education

Alphacode A

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