Assistant Professor in Forensic Medicine NCA-2019(146/2018)

Assistant Professor in Forensic Medicine NCA

Question Paper Code: 20/2019/OL

Category Code: 146/2018

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 13-06-2019

Department Medical Education

Question 1 : The theme of World Cancer Day 2019?

1. I am and I will

2. We can. I can

3. Not beyond us

4. Debunk the myths

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1. I am and I will

Question 2 : Keezhariyur Bomb Case is associated with

1. Non Co-operation Movement

2. Khilafat Movement

3. Civil Disobedience Movement

4. Quit India Movement

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4. Quit India Movement

Question 3 : Arrange the following in chronological order-i. Vaikom Satyagraha.ii. Paliyam Satyagraha.iii. Shanar Agitation.iv. Guruvayur Satyagraha

1. iii, iv, ii, i

2. iii, i, iv, ii

3. i, iv, ii, iii

4. i, iv, iii, ii

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2. iii, i, iv, ii

Question 4 : The Satellite ‘Microsat-R’ is meant for

1. Educational purpose

2. Communication purpose

3. Weather forecasting purpose

4. Military purpose

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4. Military purpose

Question 5 : The Gandhi Sagar Dam is built in

1. Thungabhadra

2. Sutlej

3. Chambal

4. Beas

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3. Chambal

Question 6 : Who was the president of Indian National Congress at the time of Independence?

1. JB Kripalani

2. Jawaharlal Nehru

3. Vallabhai Patel

4. Pattabhi Sitaramayya

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1. JB Kripalani

Question 7 : Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was launched in which of the following plan period?

1. Sixth plan

2. Fifth plan

3. Seventh plan

4. Fourth plan

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3. Seventh plan

Question 8 : In which city ISRO has inaugurated the Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC) for implementing Gaganyaan?

1. Chennai

2. Bengaluru

3. Mumbai

4. Sriharikota

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2. Bengaluru

Question 9 : Identify the rightly matched pair :

1. Pandit Karuppan-Perunna

2. Mannath Padmanabha Pillai-Panmana

3. Chattampi Swamikal-Cheranalloor

4. Ayyankali-Venganoor

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4. Ayyankali-Venganoor

Question 10 : Who won the AFC Asian Cup Football tournament 2019?

1. Australia

2. Qatar

3. Japan

4. India

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2. Qatar

Question 11 : The Kerala State Planning Board was established in

1. September 1967

2. September 1957

3. November 1956

4. November 1966

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1. September 1967

Question 12 : Neel Darpan is a play written by Dinabandhu Mitra. It deals with

1. The Farmers of Gujarat

2. The Mill Workers of Ahmednagar

3. The Artisans of Bengal

4. The Indigo farmers of Bihar

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4. The Indigo farmers of Bihar

Question 13 : Which of the following state is not sharing boundary with Bhutan?

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Assam

4. Sikkim

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1. Uttar Pradesh

Question 14 : The “Atmavidya Sangham” is associated with

1. Vaikunda Swamikal

2. Chattampi Swamikal

3. Vaghbhatananda

4. Ayyankali

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3. Vaghbhatananda

Question 15 : The period of ‘Annual Plans’

1. 1978 – 1980

2. 1966 – 1969

3. 1985 – 1987

4. 1990 – 1992

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4. 1990 – 1992

Question 16 : Who among the following is the only Malayali president of Indian National Congress?

1. Pattom A Thanupillai

2. C. Sankaran Nair

3. C. Kesavan

4. Muhammed Abdur Rahman Sahib

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2. C. Sankaran Nair

Question 17 : The book written by Sree Narayana Guru

1. Navamanjari

2. Prachina Malayalam

3. Abhinava Keralam

4. Atmavidya Kahalam

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1. Navamanjari

Question 18 : Which State Government announced the ‘One family, One Job’ scheme?

1. Gujarat

2. Bihar

3. Sikkim

4. Madhya Pradesh

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3. Sikkim

Question 19 : Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

1. K. Kelappan

2. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

3. I. K. Kumaran

4. Dadabhai Naoroji

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2. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Question 20 : The temple entry proclamation was issued on

1. 12th January 1924

2. 1st November 1931

3. 12th November 1936

4. 4th December 1947

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3. 12th November 1936

Question 21 : Atavism is resemblence of child to

1. Father

2. Mother

3. Sibling

4. Grand parent

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4. Grand parent

Question 22 : Wilful utterance of falsehood under oath is

1. Hostility

2. Perjury

3. Dichotomy

4. Adultery

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2. Perjury

Question 23 : Traumatic rupture of hymen is usually seen in the _________.

1. Antero lateral aspect

2. Postero lateral aspect

3. Centrally in the front aspect

4. Centrally in the back aspect

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2. Postero lateral aspect

Question 24 : Catamite is _________

1. Female child victim of rape

2. Active agent in bestiality

3. Child, passive agent in sodomy

4. Child, active partner of sodomy

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3. Child, passive agent in sodomy

Question 25 : Fracture-a-la-signature is __________.

1. Pond fracture

2. Mosaic fracture

3. Depressed fracture

4. Gutter fracture

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3. Depressed fracture

Question 26 : In occlusive coronary artery disease, the most common site of atheromatous narrowing of the coronary artery is _______.

1. Proximal portion of the left anterior descending artery

2. Proximal portion of the right coronary artery

3. Distal portion of right coronary artery

4. Circumflex coronary artery

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1. Proximal portion of the left anterior descending artery

Question 27 : The wound certificate is issued by

1. the doctor who first examines the patient

2. the superintendent of the hospital

3. casualty medical officer of the hospital

4. casualty medical officer of the referal hospital

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1. the doctor who first examines the patient

Question 28 : Factors limiting bioterrorism defence efforts are __________.

1. Vulnerability

2. Capability

3. Antimicrobial resistance to antibiotics

4. Intent

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3. Antimicrobial resistance to antibiotics

Question 29 : Erection of penis is mediated by

1. Parosympathetic nerves

2. Vagus nerve

3. Sympathetic nerves

4. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh

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1. Parosympathetic nerves

Question 30 : Model Minnesota protocol includes the manual for _________.

1. Diagnosing brain death

2. Treatment of prisoners by physicians

3. Model autopsy protocol

4. Organ transplantation

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3. Model autopsy protocol

Question 31 : A person while hanging himself from the branch of a tree, the branch breaks and the person dies of head injury, it is an example of ___________.

1. Attempted suicide

2. Complex suicide

3. Complicated suicide

4. Pseudocide

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3. Complicated suicide

Question 32 : Signs of recent vaginal delivery in living includes all except __________.

1. Braxton Hick’s contractions

2. Colostrum corpusceles in milk

3. Uterine fundus at the level of umbilicus

4. A rounded external cervical os

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4. A rounded external cervical os

Question 33 : Conduct money is the

1. fine paid by the doctor in negligence case

2. fee offered to a witness in a criminal court

3. is paid by the party who summon the doctor as a witness in the civil case

4. fee paid to the doctor along with a summons

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3. is paid by the party who summon the doctor as a witness in the civil case

Question 34 : True regarding recording of dying declaration is ________.

1. the doctor should certify that the person is in compos mentis

2. oath shall be administered prior to recording the statement

3. the person shall be cross examined by the accused

4. leading questions can be asked

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1. the doctor should certify that the person is in compos mentis

Question 35 : Choose the false statement regarding Tokyo declaration against torture _______.

1. The doctor shall countenance or condone in practice of torture

2. The doctor shall not present during the cruel, inhumane or degrading procedures of torture

3. The doctor must have complete clinical independence in deciding upon the care of a person

4. The doctor shall not provide any premise, instrument, substance or knowledge to facilitate torture

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1. The doctor shall countenance or condone in practice of torture

Question 36 : Drug causing physical as well as psychological dependence is

1. Cocaine

2. Amphetamene

3. LSD

4. Barbiturates

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4. Barbiturates

Question 37 : While issuing death certificate

1. doctor can charge fee

2. doctor can refuse to give the certificate if fee is not given

3. doctor should comply with the requirements of ICD 10th revision to write the certificate

4. doctor can issue the certificate in poisoning cases

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3. doctor should comply with the requirements of ICD 10th revision to write the certificate

Question 38 : Brain stem reflexes include all except ________.

1. Pupillary reflex

2. Gag reflex

3. Cremasteric reflex

4. Cough reflex

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3. Cremasteric reflex

Question 39 : Morphologic forms of reversible cell injury are all except __________.

1. Hyaline change

2. Mucoid change

3. Autolytic change

4. Fatty change

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3. Autolytic change

Question 40 : THOTA 1994 permits

1. for the commercial dealing of human organs and tissues

2. to remove any human organ for transplantation in the event of brain stem death from any body

3. any person, man or woman can donate his organs for therapeutic purpose

4. the person incharge of the hospital can authorise for the removal of organs from an unclaimed body, lying in the hospital for more than 48 hours

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4. the person incharge of the hospital can authorise for the removal of organs from an unclaimed body, lying in the hospital for more than 48 hours

Question 41 : The CD markers in T cell are _________.

1. CD 19

2. CD 21

3. `”CD_3″`

4. CD 23

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3. `”CD_3″`

Question 42 : The most numerous circulatory leucocyte is

1. Basophils

2. Eosinophils

3. Neutrophils

4. Lymphocytes

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3. Neutrophils

Question 43 : Hapten is a ________.

1. Protein

2. Non-protein

3. Antigen

4. Antibody

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2. Non-protein

Question 44 : Injuries caused by an immersion blast affects mainly the ________.

1. Stomach and intestines

2. Lungs

3. Heart

4. Ear drum

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1. Stomach and intestines

Question 45 : Multiple rib fractures can cause a blood loss of

1. 250 to 500 ml

2. 500 to 1000 ml

3. 1000 to 2000 ml

4. 2000 to 3000 ml

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3. 1000 to 2000 ml

Question 46 : Detection of gun shot residue is done by all except ________.

1. Neutron activation analysis

2. Dermal nitrate test

3. FAAS

4. `”P_{300}”` test

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4. `”P_{300}”` test

Question 47 : Dicing injuries caused on the driver in a front on collision will be on _________.

1. the right side of face, forehead and right upper limb

2. the left side of face, forehead and left upper limb

3. anywhere on the body

4. all of the above

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2. the left side of face, forehead and left upper limb

Question 48 : Stature can be calculated by

1. Gustafson’s method

2. Karl Pearson’s method

3. Boyde’s method

4. Stack’s method

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2. Karl Pearson’s method

Question 49 : In salt water drowning the lungs will be ________.

1. Crepitus

2. Heavy

3. Uniformly emphysematous

4. Only little fluid can be squeezed out

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2. Heavy

Question 50 : Battered baby syndrome can be identified by all except

1. Discrepancy between the nature of injury and the explanation offered by the parent

2. Delay between the injury and seeking of medical help

3. Repetition of injuries on different dates

4. Penetrating injury on the abdomen

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4. Penetrating injury on the abdomen

Question 51 : Fatal blood concentration of halothane is

1. 20 mg%

2. 40 mg%

3. 50 mg%

4. 180 mg%

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1. 20 mg%

Question 52 : All are delusions except

1. Hypochondriacal

2. Kleptomania

3. Influence

4. Infidelity

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2. Kleptomania

Question 53 : To identify spent bullet which microscope is used

1. Light microscope

2. Polarising microscope

3. Comparison microscope

4. Fluorescent microscope

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3. Comparison microscope

Question 54 : ‘Return trip’ is a term coined with use of

1. Cannabis

2. Opium

3. LSD

4. Marihuana

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3. LSD

Question 55 : Homicidal smothering and traumatic asphyxia is

1. Mugging

2. Burking

3. Gagging

4. Garrotting

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2. Burking

Question 56 : Poison used to kill Socrates is

1. Ginsenin

2. Hemlock

3. Datura

4. Heroin

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2. Hemlock

Question 57 : Mechanism of causation of ring fracture ___________.

1. Fall from height and landing on buttock

2. Fall from height and landing on heel

3. Fall from height and landing on vertex

4. All of the above

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4. All of the above

Question 58 : Crime described in section 325 of IPC can be tried by

1. Judicial First Class Magistrate

2. Chief Judicial Magistrate

3. Judge of Sub court

4. Sessions Judge

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2. Chief Judicial Magistrate

Question 59 : Agonal artifacts include all except

1. Regurgitation of stomach content

2. Inhaled vomit in the air passages

3. Gastromalacia

4. Pseudo-Hour glass appearance of stomach

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4. Pseudo-Hour glass appearance of stomach

Question 60 : Haemochromogen crystal test is known as __________.

1. Kastle-Meyer test

2. Takayama test

3. Teichmann’s test

4. Luminal test

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2. Takayama test

Question 61 : The fingerprint system was first used by

1. Sir Edmund Locard

2. Dr. Alec Jeffreys

3. Sir William Herschel

4. Sir Francis Golten

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3. Sir William Herschel

Question 62 : In spectroscopy reduced Hb shows

1. Two bands between D and E

2. A broad band between D and E

3. A sharp band between C and D and a broad band between D and E

4. A band between C and D

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2. A broad band between D and E

Question 63 : Vitamine that can be used in treatment for cyanide poisoning

1. Vitamine `”B_1″`

2. Vitamine `”B_6″`

3. Vitamine `”B_3″`

4. Vitamine `”B_{12}”`

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4. Vitamine `”B_{12}”`

Question 64 : Neurosis is a __________.

1. Major psychological disorder

2. Reaction to stressful circumstances

3. State where there is lack of empathy

4. State of absent insight

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2. Reaction to stressful circumstances

Question 65 : If the fatal dose of a poison is 5 to 50 mg/kg body weight, it is

1. Extremely toxic

2. Very toxic

3. Moderately toxic

4. Mildly toxic

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1. Extremely toxic

Question 66 : Choose the correct statement – Rape is an offence which is

1. Non-cognizable

2. Bailable

3. Triable by chief Judicial Magistrate

4. Imprisonment may extent upto the remainder of that person’s natural life

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4. Imprisonment may extent upto the remainder of that person’s natural life

Question 67 : ‘Fragilitas ossium’ is seen in persons _______.

1. having scurvy

2. having osteomalacia

3. corkers of phosphorous industry

4. using steroids for a long time

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3. corkers of phosphorous industry

Question 68 : Rupture of diaphragm usually occurs

1. near the central tendon on left side

2. near the attachments to the ribs

3. at the centre of the right done

4. near the vertebral attachment

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1. near the central tendon on left side

Question 69 : True regarding concussion of brain is/are ________.

1. Rotational injury caused by sudden acceleration

2. Head is not free to move with sufficient velocity

3. The mechanism is indirect violence on the vertex

4. If it is happening it is always necessarily fatal

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1. Rotational injury caused by sudden acceleration

Question 70 : Wound of entry and exit can be seen in all except _________.

1. Penetrating wound

2. Electrical injury

3. Lightning stroke injury

4. Gun shot wound

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1. Penetrating wound

Question 71 : A bruise _________.

1. Occurs at the dependent parts of the body

2. Affects broad surface area

3. Shows swelling

4. Fragments of blood coagulants will be present within the vessels

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3. Shows swelling

Question 72 : ASA IV grade is _________.

1. a patient with non incapacitating systemic disease

2. a patient not expected to survive 24 hrs with or without operation

3. a patient with severe incapacitating systemic disease which is a constant threat to life

4. a patient with mild systemic disease

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3. a patient with severe incapacitating systemic disease which is a constant threat to life

Question 73 : A pregnant woman dies from an act intended for miscarriage, the offender is liable to be punished with rigourous imprisonment which shall not be less than 10 years and also fine up to two lakh rupees is __________.

1. Section 312 of IPC

2. Section 313 of IPC

3. Section 314 of IPC

4. Section 315 of IPC

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3. Section 314 of IPC

Question 74 : Teratozoospermia is

1. Sperm concentration fewer than 20 `xx”10^6/ml”`

2. Fewer than 50% spermatozoa with forward progression

3. Fewer than 25% spermatozoa with category ‘a’ movement

4. Fewer than 30% spermatozoa with normal morphology

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4. Fewer than 30% spermatozoa with normal morphology

Question 75 : Stomach wash can be given in poisoning with

1. Sulphuric acid

2. Hydrochloric acid

3. Carbolic acid

4. Formic acid

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3. Carbolic acid

Question 76 : Endrin is a

1. Organophosphate compound

2. Dinitrophenol compound

3. Poly chlorinated hydrocarbon

4. Carbamate compound

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3. Poly chlorinated hydrocarbon

Question 77 : A donor graft is from a different species in _______.

1. Isograft

2. Allograft

3. Xenograft

4. Autograft

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3. Xenograft

Question 78 : ICMR guidelines on surrogacy include _____________.

1. Adoption of the child is not necessary if the biological parents themselves receive the child

2. Giving payment to the surrogate mother is highly unethical

3. ART clinics are permitted to advertise regarding surrogacy to make the patient aware about the availability of such treatments

4. A relative, a known person as well as an unknown person can act as a surrogate mother for the couple

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4. A relative, a known person as well as an unknown person can act as a surrogate mother for the couple

Question 79 : Example of irreversible cell damage is _____________.

1. Brown atrophy of heart muscle

2. Formation of councilman bodies in viral hepatitis

3. Transfusional haemosiderosis in reticulo-endothelial cells

4. Accumulation of haemozoin in macrophages

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2. Formation of councilman bodies in viral hepatitis

Question 80 : Example of type II hypersenisitivity is __________.

1. Hay fever

2. Graves disease

3. SLE

4. Tuberculin reaction

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2. Graves disease

Question 81 : Pattern I amyloidosis include

1. Kidney

2. Spleen

3. Liver

4. Tongue

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4. Tongue

Question 82 : Regarding examination of an expert witness all are true except

1. he is capable of drawing opinions and conclusions

2. his testimony is based on reasonable medical certainity

3. his conclusions are much more important than his opinions

4. it will establish the guilt or innocence of the accused

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4. it will establish the guilt or innocence of the accused

Question 83 : The consumer rights incorporated in the United Nations charter of Human Rights are all except

1. Right to be informed

2. Right to a healthy environment

3. Right to get legal help

4. Right to be heard

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3. Right to get legal help

Question 84 : Direct examination is done to ______________.

1. elicit the principal facts concerning the case

2. elicit the favourable facts

3. remove an undue emphasis given to a fact

4. discredit the witness

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1. elicit the principal facts concerning the case

Question 85 : Section 191 of IPC gives the definition of _____________.

1. Witness

2. Common witness

3. Expert witness

4. Hostile witness

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4. Hostile witness

Question 86 : The donated semen should be cryo-preserved and used only after six months, to _________.

1. Conceal the identity of the donor

2. Increase potency of the sample

3. Prevent the possible risk of Rh incompatibility

4. Eliminate the potential risk of HIV transmission

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4. Eliminate the potential risk of HIV transmission

Question 87 : Section 327(2) of IPC is __________.

1. Inquiry into and trial of sexual assault shall be conducted in camera

2. first aid or medical treatment shall be provided free of coast to the victims of vitriolage and sexual assault

3. Prevents following and contacting a woman, against her interest, through internet

4. Assault or use of criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty

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1. Inquiry into and trial of sexual assault shall be conducted in camera

Question 88 : Ph of semen is

1. 6.2 to 7.2

2. 6.5 to 7.5

3. 7.2 to 8.0

4. 7.5 to 8.5

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3. 7.2 to 8.0

Question 89 : A respired lung will be ___________.

1. Reddish brown in colour

2. With sharp margins

3. Having 1/70th of body weight

4. Float in water

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4. Float in water

Question 90 : Find out the odd man in the following

1. Section 498-A of the IPC

2. Section 113 A of IEA

3. Section 304 A of IPC

4. Section 174(3) of CrPC

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3. Section 304 A of IPC

Question 91 : The lowest deep body temperature tolerated by a person is

1. 19°C

2. 9°C

3. -9°C

4. -19°C

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2. 9°C

Question 92 : Test of choice to detect blood alcohol concentration for medico legal purpose is _______.

1. Cavett test

2. Kastle-Mayer test

3. Kozelka and Hine test

4. Gas Chromatography

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4. Gas Chromatography

Question 93 : ‘If the law has made you witness, remain a man of science, you have no victim to avenge, no guilty person to convict, and no innocent person to save” – is a famous statement by _________.

1. Paulus Zacchias

2. Orfila

3. Brouardel

4. William Osler

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3. Brouardel

Question 94 : The first permanent tooth to erupt is

1. Central incisor

2. Lateral incisor

3. First-Molar

4. Canine

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3. First-Molar

Question 95 : Necrosis of proximal convoluted tubule is caused by

1. Oxalic acid

2. Carbolic acid

3. Nitric acid

4. Hydrochloric acid

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1. Oxalic acid

Question 96 : Following is not a route of HIV transmission

1. men having sex with men

2. men having sex with women

3. during delivery

4. insect bite

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4. insect bite

Question 97 : A nulliparous uterus have

1. rounded cavity

2. well defined internal os

3. top of fundus at above the line of broad ligament

4. body twice the length of cervix

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2. well defined internal os

Question 98 : Oxytocin is an

1. irritant of genito urinary tract

2. irritant of gastro intestinal tract

3. emmenegogue

4. ecbolic

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4. ecbolic

Question 99 : Declaration of oslo (1970) is a resolution on

1. Criminal abortion

2. Therapeutic abortion

3. Natural abortion

4. Accidental abortion

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2. Therapeutic abortion

Question 100 : Marsh test is used to detect

1. Cupper

2. Lead

3. Arsenic

4. Iron

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3. Arsenic

Assistant Professor in Forensic Medicine NCA

Question Paper Code: 20/2019/OL

Category Code: 146/2018

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 13-06-2019

Department Medical Education

Chief General Manager-2015(296/2011)

Chief General Manager

Question Paper Code: 1/2015/OL

Category Code: 296/2011

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 27-01-2015

Question 1 : Regarding a bill being a money bill the certificate of the

1. President is final

2. Vice President is final

3. Speaker of Loksabha is final

4. Finance Minister is final

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3. Speaker of Loksabha is final

Question 2 : Which of the following statements concerning the power of the president is wrong

1. No bill can become a law unless the president puts his assent on it

2. The president has the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya sabha and 2 Anglo Indian members to the Loksabha

3. The president declares war and concludes treaties ,subject to the provisions of the constitution

4. The president has the power to summon ,prorogue and dissolve Loksabha and Rajya sabha

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4. The president has the power to summon ,prorogue and dissolve Loksabha and Rajya sabha

Question 3 : Which kind of Thullal form is used in the first work of kunjanNambiar(kallyana sougandhikam)

1. Sheethangan Thullal

2. Ottan Thullal

3. Parayan Thullal

4. Pana Thullal

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1. Sheethangan Thullal

Question 4 : Herman Gundert was a member of

1. London Missionary Society

2. Church Missionary Society

3. Basel Evangelical Missionary Society

4. London Evangelical Church Missionary Society

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3. Basel Evangelical Missionary Society

Question 5 : The Movement demanded to quit election in Travancore ,claiming the negligence of adequate reservation for communal minorities

1. Ezhava Memmorial

2. Nivarthana Prakshobham

3. Malayalee Memmorial

4. Kalpathi-Sucheendram satyagraham

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2. Nivarthana Prakshobham

Question 6 : The Novel ‘ Narmani Putava’ written by

1. P.Valsala

2. Sara Thomas

3. Madhavikutty

4. Arya Pallam

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2. Sara Thomas

Question 7 : ‘ I Too Had A Dream ‘ is an autobiography of

1. Dr.Varghese kurien

2. Pandit Ravisankar

3. P.Govinda Pillai

4. Dr.Lekshmi Segal

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1. Dr.Varghese kurien

Question 8 : Original name of famous personality’ Vagbhadanandan’

1. Ananda shenoy

2. K.P. Karuppan

3. Kumara Guru

4. Kunjikannan

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4. Kunjikannan

Question 9 : ” It is better to light a candle than to curse the darkness” is the motto of

1. Bharat Scout and Guides

2. Red Cross

3. Amnesty International

4. Greenpeace

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3. Amnesty International

Question 10 : The first malayalee recipient of the Saraswathi Samman

1. Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai

2. Lalithambika Antharjanam

3. G. SankaraKurup

4. Balamani Amma

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4. Balamani Amma

Question 11 : The Vigilance Officer appointed by the government to investigate the cases of misappropriation in the society shall have the rank not below the rank of

1. Superintendent of Police

2. Inspector General of Police

3. Deputy Inspector General of Police

4. Deputy superintendent of Police

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3. Deputy Inspector General of Police

Question 12 : Maximum members of a board of directors of a primary co-operative society shall not be more than

1. 15 members

2. 21members

3. 13members

4. 7members

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1. 15 members

Question 13 : Who is the custodian of cash and other valuables of a Primary Agricultural Co-operative Society

1. Cashier

2. Secretary

3. President

4. Accountant

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2. Secretary

Question 14 : State Co-operative Election Commission conduct all elections of co-operative societies mentioned below except

1. Election of Board of Directors

2. Election of President and Vice President

3. Election of Special General Body

4. Election of Representative General Body

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3. Election of Special General Body

Question 15 : The co-operative Development and Welfare Fund shall not be utilized for

1. Utilizing for the developmental activities of these societies

2. Safe guarding the damages to their assets

3. Safe guarding the loss to their properties

4. Expenses incurred for opening branches

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2. Safe guarding the damages to their assets

Question 16 : The Registrar shall appoint as per Section 71 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act a person called

1. Co-operative Tribunal

2. Co-operative Ombudsman

3. Liquidator

4. Sale officer

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3. Liquidator

Question 17 : Which among the following Co-operative Societies, election shall not be conducted on ward basis

1. Urban Co-operative Banks

2. Urban Co-operative Societies

3. Primary Housing Co-operative Societies

4. Primary Consumer Co-operative Societies

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4. Primary Consumer Co-operative Societies

Question 18 : The immovable property acquired by a society through a sale by the sale officer for realization of loan amount shall be disposed within

1. 7 years

2. 3 years

3. 1 year

4. 2 years

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1. 7 years

Question 19 : Which among the following is a false statement in case of voting to a society

1. A member admitted in a Co-operative Society within 60 days immediately prior to the date of election shall not have right to vote

2. A nominal member shall not have right to vote

3. A depositor shall have right to vote

4. An ex-officio member on the committee shall have vote

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3. A depositor shall have right to vote

Question 20 : A Society shall dispose 10% of its net profit to

1. Reserve Fund

2. Member Relief Fund

3. Agricultural Credit Stabilization Fund

4. Co-operative Education Fund

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2. Member Relief Fund

Question 21 : Societies which are bond to keep fluid resources are

1. Societies having deposits

2. Societies doing Marketing business

3. Societies doing Consumer business only

4. Societies dealing coir products

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1. Societies having deposits

Question 22 : Among the following which is not the privileges of a Consumer Co-operative Society

1. Charge on land owned by its loanees

2. Exemption from income tax

3. Deduction from the salary of loanees

4. Exemption from stamp duty

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2. Exemption from income tax

Question 23 : The amendment of the bye-law shall have approval from

1. Chief Executive

2. Managing Director

3. President

4. General Body

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4. General Body

Question 24 : Rule 6 of Kerala Co-operative Societies Act deals with

1. Registrar of co-operative society

2. Model bye-law

3. Amendment of bye-law

4. First General Body

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2. Model bye-law

Question 25 : Which type of societies are allowed to admit any other society as nominal or associate member

1. Coir Societies

2. Scheduled Caste Societies

3. Hand loom Societies

4. Hospital Societies

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4. Hospital Societies

Question 26 : Which of the following would be classified by Herzberg as a hygiene factor?

1. Achievement

2. Company policy

3. Promotion

4. Responsibility

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2. Company policy

Question 27 : Achievement motivation relates to

1. Need of the person

2. Knowledge of the person

3. experience of the person

4. aptitude of the person.

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1. Need of the person

Question 28 : A transformational leader is one

1. who is involved in organizational change

2. who provides new ways of carrying out management.

3. who inspires the corkers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better future

4. who tries to transform their staff by giving them rewards for what they do

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3. who inspires the corkers to new levels by offering them a vision of a better future

Question 29 : Decision making does not include:

1. identifying the problem

2. evaluating alternatives

3. select a preferred alternative

4. making forecast

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4. making forecast

Question 30 : The most democratic form of oraganisation is

1. line

2. line and staff

3. functional

4. committee

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4. committee

Question 31 : Idenfify the wrong statement

1. leadership is the ability to influence a group

2. all leaders are managers

3. all leaders are not managers

4. all managers are leaders

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2. all leaders are managers

Question 32 : Which strategy would be effective when the new products have a counter cyclical sales pattern compared to an organization’s present products?

1. Forward integration

2. market positioning

3. Horizontal diversification

4. Market penetration

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1. Forward integration

Question 33 : What does Dog symbolize in BCG martrix?

1. high growth, high market share

2. low growth, low market share

3. low growth, high market share

4. high growth, low market share

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2. low growth, low market share

Question 34 : Specific, short-term statements detailing how to achieve an organization’s goals is known as

1. vision

2. mission

3. objectives

4. operational planning

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3. objectives

Question 35 : Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?

1. eye contact

2. jargon

3. yelling

4. mumbling

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1. eye contact

Question 36 : The factors that generate shareholder wealth are usually called

1. key factors

2. value drivers

3. present values

4. future cash flows

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2. value drivers

Question 37 : What does EVA stand for

1. Employee value analysis

2. Expected value arising

3. Economic value added

4. Economic value analysis

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3. Economic value added

Question 38 : A common method of measuring attitude of people is

1. in-depth interviews

2. observing people’s behavior

3. semantic differential scales

4. a lie detector

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3. semantic differential scales

Question 39 : Matrix structure of orgnisation violates which key element of organizational design

1. unity of command

2. chain of command

3. span of management

4. decentralisation

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1. unity of command

Question 40 : Authority and responsibility are ——— to each other

1. supplementary

2. inconsistent

3. contradictory

4. complementary

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4. complementary

Question 41 : An offer kept open for acceptance over a period of time is referred to as :

1. Counter offer

2. Cross offer

3. Standing offer

4. Specific offer

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3. Standing offer

Question 42 : The time limit for filing a complaint before the District forum under Consumer Protection Act, 1986,is

1. One year

2. Two years

3. Three years

4. There is no such limits

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2. Two years

Question 43 : Mr.A entered into a contract with Mr.B whereby Mr.A agreed to sell heroin an illegal substance, worth Rs.50,000 to Mr.B. This is an example for:

1. Void contract

2. Voidable contract

3. Quasi contract

4. Second Party Beneficiary contract

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1. Void contract

Question 44 : Section 172 of Contract Act deals with :

1. Bailment

2. Pledge

3. Indemnity

4. Lien

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2. Pledge

Question 45 : The outside third party who is brought into settle a dispute and has the authority to take a decision is called:

1. Legal expert

2. Government

3. An arbitrator

4. Mentor

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3. An arbitrator

Question 46 : Which of the following transactions does not come under the purview of bailment?

1. Delivering goods to creditor as security of loan

2. Delivering goods for repair with or without remuneration

3. Delivering goods for carriage

4. Placing ornaments in bank locker

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4. Placing ornaments in bank locker

Question 47 : The term of a patent is:

1. 10 years

2. 14 Years

3. 20 Years

4. 25 Years

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3. 20 Years

Question 48 : ‘Novation’ is a mode of discharge of contract by:

1. lapse of time

2. agreement

3. operation of law

4. performance of contract

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2. agreement

Question 49 : From the following identify a statement that is not true:

1. Principal is bound by the act of agent done within the scope of his authority

2. Authority given to borrow money makes the principal liable even if the agent borrows beyond authorised limits

3. Principal is liable for fraud committed by his agent acting in the course of his business

4. Authority given to sell goods authorises the agent to borrow money by pledging the goods

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4. Authority given to sell goods authorises the agent to borrow money by pledging the goods

Question 50 : Who is the Chairman of the Central Consumer Protection Council?

1. Prime Minister

2. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

3. Chief Justice of the High Court

4. Minister in Charge of Consumer Affairs

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4. Minister in Charge of Consumer Affairs

Question 51 : Who appoints the State Chief Information Commissioner under ‘The Right to Information Act, 2005’ ?

1. Chief Minister

2. Governor

3. President of India

4. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

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2. Governor

Question 52 : The Consumer Education and Research Centre is located at :

1. Bombay

2. Ahmedabad

3. Kanpur

4. Delhi

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2. Ahmedabad

Question 53 : The damages that can be awarded even if the aggrieved party has not suffered any loss, is referred to as:

1. exemplary damages

2. special damages

3. ordinary damages

4. nominal damages

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4. nominal damages

Question 54 : From the following, identify the one which is not a main objective of ‘The Right to Information Act,2005;

1. To ensure greater and more effective access to information

2. To make the Right to Information Act more progressive,participatory and meaningful

3. To have provisions to ensure maximum disclosure and maximum exemption consistent with Constitutional Provisions

4. To provide for effective mechanism for access to information and disclosure by authorities

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3. To have provisions to ensure maximum disclosure and maximum exemption consistent with Constitutional Provisions

Question 55 : The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India was established in ————-

1. 1991

2. 1996

3. 1997

4. 2000

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3. 1997

Question 56 : Regulatory environment consists

1. Policies related to imports and exports

2. Policies related to distribution and pricing

3. (A) and (B) both

4. Cost of human resources

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3. (A) and (B) both

Question 57 : GDP consists

1. Per unit market price

2. Gross output of goods

3. Service

4. All of the above

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4. All of the above

Question 58 : Which one of the following is not a characteristic of capitalist economic system

1. Central economic planning

2. Interdependence

3. Occupational freedom

4. Consumer sovereignty

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1. Central economic planning

Question 59 : . EXIM Policy, 2002-07 started from

1. 31-03-2002

2. 28-03-2002

3. 1-04-2002

4. 2-04-2002

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1. 31-03-2002

Question 60 : The economic environment of a business includes

1. Economic System

2. Economic Policies

3. Economic Conditions

4. All of the above

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4. All of the above

Question 61 : The Finance Act 2012 gives income tax rates for Assessment Year

1. 2010-11

2. 2011-12

3. 2012-13

4. 2013-14

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4. 2013-14

Question 62 : The Environment Protection Act came into force from

1. 1986

2. 1987

3. 1988

4. 1991

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1. 1986

Question 63 : Which of the following is limitation of Environmental Analysis

1. Does not foretell the future

2. Not a sufficient guarantor of organisational effectiveness

3. Offers one basis for organisational learning

4. All of the above

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4. All of the above

Question 64 : Which of the following is not the advantage of socialism

1. Goal oriented economy

2. Eradication of exploitation

3. State Capitalism

4. No cyclical fluctuations

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3. State Capitalism

Question 65 : A mixed economy is …… a planned economy

1. Necessarily

2. Compulsorily

3. Statutory

4. Voluntary

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1. Necessarily

Question 66 : “A good environment is good business.” Who said ?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

3. Peter.F.Drucker

4. Dr.S.S.Rao

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2. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

Question 67 : SWOT analysis forming part of ………….

1. Strategy formulation

2. Long range planning

3. Short range planning

4. Strategy implementation

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1. Strategy formulation

Question 68 : The first Five Year Plan was launched in the year

1. 1950

2. 1948

3. 1951

4. 1956

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3. 1951

Question 69 : Indian Institute of Science is established by

1. Tata

2. Birla

3. Bajaj

4. Singhania

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1. Tata

Question 70 : According to BCG matrix a business which has a high growth rate but a weak market share is referred to as

1. Cash Cow

2. Dog

3. Star

4. Question Mark

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4. Question Mark

Question 71 : Who is the present Governor of RBI

1. Sri Osborne Smith

2. C.D Deshmukh

3. Duvvuri Subbarao

4. Raghuram Rajan

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4. Raghuram Rajan

Question 72 : Which is the first bank to introduce ATM?

1. Punjab National Bank

2. HSBC

3. Allahabad Bank

4. State Bank of India

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2. HSBC

Question 73 : Which bank is known as the Banker’s Bank

1. SBT

2. RBI

3. Punjab National Bank

4. Punjab National Bank

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2. RBI

Question 74 : An efficient capital market is one where

1. Transactions are cheaply and efficiently carried out

2. Security prices show smooth patterns of movement

3. Security prices always rationally reflect all relevant information

4. Security prices do not reflect all relevant information

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3. Security prices always rationally reflect all relevant information

Question 75 : IFSC is an ________ digit code

1. 8

2. 14

3. 12

4. 11

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4. 11

Question 76 : EFT stands for

1. Easy Fund transfer

2. Maintenance fund transfer

3. Paperless Banking

4. Electronic Funds Transfer

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4. Electronic Funds Transfer

Question 77 : ________ act as a consortium leader of the banking institutions in the district

1. Lead Bank

2. Social Banking

3. Core Banking

4. District Co-operative Bank

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1. Lead Bank

Question 78 : Cheque in circulation for more than six months fron the date of the cheque is a

1. Post dated cheque

2. Anti dated cheque

3. Stale cheque

4. Bearer cheque

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3. Stale cheque

Question 79 : ______ means signing on the back of a negotiable instrument with a view to transfer the title of the instrument to another person

1. Underwriting

2. Document

3. Instrument

4. Endorsement

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4. Endorsement

Question 80 : RTGS has been implemented in India w.e.f.

1. 26 March 2004

2. 13 May 2004

3. 26April 2005

4. 13 January2003

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1. 26 March 2004

Question 81 : Blue chip shares means

1. Those shares which are listed in the stock exchange

2. Those shares whose guarantee is given by Government

3. Those shares on whom dividend is paid at higher rate regularly

4. Those shares which are issued at first time

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3. Those shares on whom dividend is paid at higher rate regularly

Question 82 : Days of grace are allowed to

1. Demand Bill

2. Cheque

3. Time Bill

4. Promissory Note

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3. Time Bill

Question 83 : In India 14 commercial Banks were nationalized in the year

1. 1955

2. 1969

3. 1972

4. 1980

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2. 1969

Question 84 : Crossing of the cheque can be made by

1. Drawer only

2. Banker only

3. Any holder

4. None of these

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3. Any holder

Question 85 : Accounting principles are acceptable when they, in general, satisfy the basic norms

1. Usefulness and Objectivity

2. Objectivity and feasibility

3. Usefulness, Objectivity and Feasibility

4. Usefulness, Objectivity, Feasibility and Obligatory

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3. Usefulness, Objectivity and Feasibility

Question 86 : The term ‘playing safe’ relate to

1. Convention of conservatism

2. Convention of materiality

3. Realization concept

4. Going concern concept

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1. Convention of conservatism

Question 87 : Which of the following method does not consider as a Method of Depreciation?

1. Double Declining Balance Method

2. Mileage Method

3. Service Hours Method

4. Striking Product Method

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4. Striking Product Method

Question 88 : According to Rolland, Trail balance is defined as ‘the final list of balances,______________’

1. adjusted and totalled

2. totalled in a column form

3. totalled and combined

4. totalled and accumulated

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3. totalled and combined

Question 89 : The case Gurner V/s Murray relate to

1. Admission of a partner

2. Retirement of a partner

3. Death of a partner

4. Insolvency of a partner

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4. Insolvency of a partner

Question 90 : The term ‘credit’ derived from the Latin word

1. Credre

2. Creditum

3. Creditmn

4. Croditum

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1. Credre

Question 91 : Mr.A, Mr.B are partners. Their old profit sharing ratio was 3:1. Mr. A surrendered 1/32 of his share and Mr. B surrendered 3/32 of his share in favor of Mr.C. Calculate Sacrificing ratio of A & B.

1. 3/128:3/128

2. 93/128:29/128

3. 3/128:5/128

4. 5/128:3/128

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1. 3/128:3/128

Question 92 : As per section 128 of the Companies Act, managerial remuneration is

1. 11 % of Net Profit

2. 5 % of Net Profit

3. 10% of Net Profit

4. 4 % of Net Profit

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1. 11 % of Net Profit

Question 93 : Green Limited had total purchases of Rs. 80,000 during the year. The opening and closing balance of creditors were Rs.20,000 and 30,000 respectively. Payments made to creditors during the year were Rs 60,000. Discount received was Rs 2,000. The credit purchases during the year ———

1. 82,000

2. 72,000

3. 86,200

4. 86,400

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2. 72,000

Question 94 : The RBI appointed a committee under the chairmanship of K.B Chore in April ——— to review the working of cash credit system.

1. 1981

2. 1979

3. 1982

4. 1974

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2. 1979

Question 95 : Irrelevance theory of capital structure, assumptions does not include

1. No corporate tax

2. Cost of debt is constant

3. Cost of debt is lower than cost of equity

4. None of these

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4. None of these

Question 96 : A company expects a net income of Rs 80,000. It has Rs 2,00,000 debentures of 8% rate of interest. The equity capitalization rate of the company is 10 %. Compute overall capitalization rate according to Net Income Approach, ignoring income tax.

1. 9 %

2. 8.3%

3. 8.52%

4. 9.52%

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4. 9.52%

Question 97 : A ‘Yen note’ floated in Germany is an example of

1. Euro bond

2. Yen bond

3. Floating rate yen bond

4. Euro commercial paper

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1. Euro bond

Question 98 : Research and Development expenditure is an example of

1. Capital expenditure

2. Revenue expenditure

3. Deferred revenue expenditure

4. None of these

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3. Deferred revenue expenditure

Question 99 : Section ———- for buy back of shares as per Companies Act 1956

1. 78

2. 79

3. 77

4. 81

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3. 77

Chief General Manager

Question Paper Code: 1/2015/OL

Category Code: 296/2011

Exam: Chief General Manager

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 27-01-2015