Higher Secondary School Teacher - 144-2013

Higher Secondary School Teacher – 144-2013

Question Paper Code: 144/2013

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 29-08-2014

Alphacode A

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Question 1 : In a BST, the traversal type which would print the values in the nodes in sorted order is

1. Preorder

2. Inorder

3. Postorder

4. None of the above

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2. Inorder

Question 2 : The contrapositive of the statement, “You win the game if you know the rules but are not overconfident” is :

1. If you lose the game then you don’t know the rules or you are overconfident.

2. If you know the rules and are overconfident then you win the game.

3. A necessary condition that you know the rules or you are not overconfident is that you win the game.

4. If you dont’t know the rules or are overconfident you lose the game.

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1. If you lose the game then you don’t know the rules or you are overconfident.

Question 3 : In which one of the following models can requirements be redefined

1. Spiral Model

2. Prototyping Model

3. Waterfall Model

4. Evolutionary Model

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2. Prototyping Model

Question 4 : The method adopted by the memory management module of an OS of a computer to periodically collect all the free memory space to form contiguous block of free space is called

1. Dynamic Memory Allocation

2. Garbage Collection

3. Concatenation

4. Collision

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2. Garbage Collection

Question 5 : Among the following statements about binary trees which one is NOT true ?

1. Every non-empty tree has exactly one root node.

2. Every non-root node has exactly one parent.

3. Every binary tree has at least one node.

4. Every node has at most two children.

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3. Every binary tree has at least one node.

Question 6 : DRAM is used as main memory in a computer system because it

1. needs refreshing circuitary

2. consumes less power

3. has higher speed

4. has lower cell density

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3. has higher speed

Question 7 : 8251 is a

1. UART

2. USART

3. Programmable interval timer/counter

4. Programmable Interrupt Controller

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2. USART

Question 8 : A public key encryption system

1. Allows only the correct receiver to decode the data

2. Does not encode the data before transmitting it

3. Allows only the correct sender to decode the data

4. Allows only one to decode the transmission

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1. Allows only the correct receiver to decode the data

Question 9 : Environment variables can be accessed by

1. System programs

2. C programs

3. Shell scripts

4. All of these

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4. All of these

Question 10 : DML is used for

1. Addition of new structures in the database system

2. Manipulation and processing of database

3. Definition of physical structure of database system

4. Description of logical structure of database

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2. Manipulation and processing of database

Question 11 : Suppose that N = {1, 2, 3, …} be ordered by divisibility, which one of the following subset is totally ordered?

1. (2, 6, 24)

2. (4, 15, 30)

3. (3,5,15)

4. (2,9,16)

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1. (2, 6, 24)

Question 12 : Which among the following searching technique takes O(1) time to locate a data ?

1. Binary Search

2. Tree Search

3. Hashing

4. Linear Search

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3. Hashing

Question 13 : The cause for poor response time is

1. High I/O rates

2. High paging rates

3. Process busy

4. Any of the above

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4. Any of the above

Question 14 : Which among the following statements is false ?

1. The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element

2. Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary

3. The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator

4. Database administrator normally maintains the data dictionary

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2. Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary

Question 15 : The infix expression for the postfix expression x 12 + z 17 y + 42 * / + is

1. x + 12 + z / 17 + y * 42

2. x + 12 + z / (17 + y)*42

3. (x + 12 + z)/(17 + y * 42)

4. x + 12 + z / ((17 + y) * 42)

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4. x + 12 + z / ((17 + y) * 42)

Question 16 : The basic types of programmable arrays are made of ________________

1. AND gates

2. AND gates and OR gates

3. OR gates

4. NAND and NOR gates

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2. AND gates and OR gates

Question 17 : A COCOMO model is

1. Complete Cost Estimation Model

2. Constructive Cost Estimation Model

3. Common Cost Estimation Model

4. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model

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2. Constructive Cost Estimation Model

Question 18 : The interval between the time of submission and completion of a job is called as ___________

1. Turnaround time

2. Waiting time

3. Response time

4. Throughput

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1. Turnaround time

Question 19 : An assembler is

1. data dependent

2. programming language dependent

3. machine dependent

4. syntax dependent

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3. machine dependent

Question 20 : The expansion of nested macro calls follows _________ rule

1. LILO

2. LIFO

3. FIFO

4. priority

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2. LIFO

Question 21 : Von Neumann architecture is

1. SISD

2. SIMD

3. MIMD

4. MISD

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1. SISD

Question 22 : The device that is used to forward data packets from one network to another is called a _________

1. Bridge

2. Hub

3. Switch

4. Gateway

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3. Switch

Question 23 : Which among the following is the most general phrase structured grammar ?

1. Context – Sensitive

2. Context – Free

3. Regular

4. None of the above

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1. Context – Sensitive

Question 24 : When the following instructions have been executed, what will be the contents of register AL ?MOV BL, 8C.MOV AL, 7E.ADD AL, BL.

1. 0A and carry flag is reset

2. 0A and carry flag is set

3. 6A and carry flag is reset

4. 6A and carry flag is set

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2. 0A and carry flag is set

Question 25 : The first modern computer was called __________

1. UNIVAC-I

2. FLOW-MATIC

3. ENIAC

4. INTEL

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3. ENIAC

Question 26 : Secret-key encryption is also known as

1. Secret-encryption

2. Asymmetric encryption

3. Symmetric encryption

4. Private encryption

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3. Symmetric encryption

Question 27 : DNS is a

1. Distributed hierarchical naming system

2. Vertical naming system

3. Horizontal naming system

4. Client Server system

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1. Distributed hierarchical naming system

Question 28 : E-commerce is not suitable for

1. Online job searching

2. Sale/Purchase of expensive jewellery and antiques

3. Sale/Purchase of branded clothes

4. Sale/Purchase of mobile phones

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1. Online job searching

Question 29 : Several factors exist that affect the efficiency of lookup operations in a hash table. Which among the following is NOT one of those factors ?

1. Size of elements stored in the hash table.

2. Number of elements stored in the hash table.

3. Quality of the hash function.

4. Number of buckets in the hash table.

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1. Size of elements stored in the hash table.

Question 30 : A DBMS query language is designed to

1. specify the structure of a database

2. support end users with English-like commands

3. support the development of complex applications software

4. all of the above

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4. all of the above

Question 31 : Let r be a resource. There are 3 user processes each requiring 2 units of R. Then the minimum number of units of R such that no deadlocks will occur is

1. 4

2. 3

3. 5

4. 6

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1. 4

Question 32 : Assume a cache memory with associative mapping. If the main memory is of 8K bytes and the cache memory is of 2K words, then each word of cache memory is

1. 21 bits

2. 11 bits

3. 16 bits

4. 20 bits

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3. 16 bits

Question 33 : Which of the following is true ?

1. Stream cipher technique is an encryption technique

2. Block cipher technique is an encryption technique

3. Both (A) and (B)

4. Neither of (A) and (B)

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3. Both (A) and (B)

Question 34 : Given a linked list with n elements. Then the time taken to insert an element after an element pointed to by some pointer is

1. O(n log2 n)

2. O(1)

3. O(log2 n)

4. O(n)

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2. O(1)

Question 35 : Let h be a hashing function and is used to hash n keys into a table of size m (given n<=m). Then the expected number of collisions involving a particular key x is

1. less than 1

2. less than m

3. less than n

4. less than n/2

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1. less than 1

Question 36 : If L is a lattice, then for every a and b in L which among the following is correct?

1. a ν (b Λ c) =a

2. a ν (b ν c) = (a ν b) ν c

3. a ν b = a Λ b

4. a ν (b ν c) = b

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2. a ν (b ν c) = (a ν b) ν c

Question 37 : The technique of improving the priority of process waiting in queue for CPU allocation is called _________________

1. Starvation

2. Ageing

3. Revocation

4. Relocation

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2. Ageing

Question 38 : PSW is saved in stack when there is a

1. interrupt recognized

2. execution of CALL instruction

3. execution of RST instruction

4. all of these

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1. interrupt recognized

Question 39 : The default subnet mask for a Class C network is

1. 127.0.0.1

2. 255.0.0.0

3. 255.255.0.0

4. 255.255.255.0

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4. 255.255.255.0

Question 40 : Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of Distributed System?

1. Reliability

2. Incremental growth

3. Resource sharing

4. None of the above

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4. None of the above

Question 41 : Cache memory is based

1. on the property of locality of reference

2. on the fact that references generally tend to cluster

3. on the heuristic 90-10 rule

4. all of the above

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1. on the property of locality of reference

Question 42 : The language component of DBMS which can be embedded in a program is

1. the database administrator (DBA)

2. the data manipulation language (DML)

3. the data definition language (DDL)

4. a query language

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2. the data manipulation language (DML)

Question 43 : A computer system that permits multiple users to run programs at same time is _______

1. Real time system

2. Time sharing system

3. Multiprogramming system

4. Multi tasking system

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4. Multi tasking system

Question 44 : Which of the following statement is the negation of the statement, “10 is even and -5 is negative”

1. 10 is even and -5 is not negative

2. 10 is odd and -5 is not negative

3. 10 is even or -5 is not negative

4. 10 is odd or -5 is not negative

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4. 10 is odd or -5 is not negative

Question 45 : The __________ sort relatively passes through a list to exchange the first element with any element less than it and then repeats with a new first element

1. selection sort

2. quick sort

3. insertion sort

4. heap sort

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2. quick sort

Question 46 : Which among the following is the data structure that is used to check balanced parenthesis in an expression

1. Stack

2. Tree

3. Queue

4. Array

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1. Stack

Question 47 : p → q is logically equivalent to

1. ~q → p

2. ~pνq

3. ~pΛq

4. ~p → q

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2. ~pνq

Question 48 : Which of the following regular expression over {0,1} denotes the set of all strings not containing 100 as substring?

1. 0*1*01*

2. 0*1010*

3. 0*(1*0)*

4. 0*(10+1)*

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4. 0*(10+1)*

Question 49 : Which one of the following is NOT a size metric?

1. Cyclomatic complexity

2. Function count

3. LOC

4. Program Length

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1. Cyclomatic complexity

Question 50 : The scheduling policy that is most suitable for a time-shared operating system is :

1. SJF

2. Elevator

3. Round Robin

4. FCFS

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3. Round Robin

Question 51 : If a node in a BST has two children, then its inorder predecessor has

1. no child

2. no left child

3. no right child

4. two children

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3. no right child

Question 52 : The maximum number of processes that may be simultaneously inside the critical section inorder to avoid race condition is

1. one

2. zero

3. more than two

4. two

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1. one

Question 53 : The time required by a sector to reach below read/write head is called as ___________

1. Seek time

2. Access time

3. Latency time

4. None

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3. Latency time

Question 54 : Which on of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring e-mail messages from one machine to another?

1. RPC

2. FTP

3. SMTP

4. RTP

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3. SMTP

Question 55 : Among the following, which one is used to connect two systems, specifically if the systems use different protocols.

1. hub

2. bridge

3. gateway

4. repeater

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3. gateway

Question 56 : The disadvantage of a pipe is that

1. It is a one way communication channel

2. It dies along with the process that created it

3. It cannot be shared by unrelated processes

4. All of the above

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4. All of the above

Question 57 : a subschema expresses

1. the physical view

2. the logical view

3. the external view

4. all of the above

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3. the external view

Question 58 : Given that modules X and Y operate on the same input and output data, then the cohesion is

1. Procedural

2. Communicational

3. Logical

4. Sequential

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2. Communicational

Question 59 : Which among the following sorting methods is the most suitable one for sorting a list which is almost sorted

1. Bubble Sort

2. Quick sort

3. Selection sort

4. Insertion sort

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1. Bubble Sort

Question 60 : _____________ is the scheduler which selects processes from secondary storage for scheduling

1. Process scheduler

2. Short term scheduler

3. Medium term scheduler

4. Long term scheduler

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3. Medium term scheduler

Question 61 : Among the following which one is NOT a weighted code?

1. Binary number system

2. Excess 3 code

3. Decimal number system

4. None of these

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2. Excess 3 code

Question 62 : LDAP stands for

1. Large Directory Access Protocol

2. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

3. Large Data Access Protocol

4. Lightweight Data Access Protocol

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2. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

Question 63 : EPROM is erased by using

1. Ultraviolet rays

2. 24 V electric pulse

3. 12 V electric pulse

4. infrared rays

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1. Ultraviolet rays

Question 64 : The language that has recently become the defacto standard for interfacing application programs with relational database system is

1. 4GL

2. SQL

3. DBase

4. Oracle

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2. SQL

Question 65 : A translator which performs macro expansion is called as ____________

1. Micro pre-processor

2. Macro processor

3. Assembler

4. Macro pre-processor

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4. Macro pre-processor

Question 66 : The term ‘page traffic’ refers to

1. the movement of pages in and out of memory

2. number of pages of executing programs loaded in memory

3. number of pages in memory at a given instant

4. number of pages required to be brought in at a given page request

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1. the movement of pages in and out of memory

Question 67 : The term ‘page traffic’ refers to

1. the movement of pages in and out of memory

2. number of pages of executing programs loaded in memory

3. number of pages in memory at a given instant

4. number of pages required to be brought in at a given page request

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1. the movement of pages in and out of memory

Question 68 : Which one of the following proposition is a tautology?

1. p→(p→q)

2. pν(q→p)

3. pν(p→q)

4. (pνq)→p

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3. pν(p→q)

Question 69 : Relocatable programs

1. do not need a linker

2. can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

3. can be loaded only at one specific location

4. cannot be used with fixed partitions

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2. can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

Question 70 : In the write operation of DMA, the data is transferred

1. from I/O to memory

2. from memory to memory

3. from memory to I/O

4. from I/O to I/O

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1. from I/O to memory

Question 71 : Which of the following language paradigms allows the programmer to express algorithms derived from a top-down design?

1. logic

2. functional

3. object-oriented

4. procedural

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4. procedural

Question 72 : The following is an example of bool-expression.

1. x=6

2. m1.setText(“Hello”)

3. cause=bYes

4. 70

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3. cause=bYes

Question 73 : If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is said to be

1. verifiable

2. complete

3. traceable

4. modifiable

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1. verifiable

Question 74 : In order to sort a list L consisting of a sorted list followed by a few “random” elements, which one of the following sorting methods would be suitable?

1. Quick sort

2. Selection sort

3. Bubble sort

4. Insertion sort

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4. Insertion sort

Question 75 : SIMD organization represents

1. organization of single computer containing a control unit, processor unit and a memory unit

2. one that includes many processing units under the supervision of a common control unit

3. a computer system capable of processing several programs at the same time

4. none of the above

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2. one that includes many processing units under the supervision of a common control unit

Question 76 : The view of total database content is

1. External view

2. Physical view

3. Internal view

4. Conceptual view

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4. Conceptual view

Question 77 : Quick sort algorithm belongs to the _______________ design technique.

1. Backtracking

2. Dynamic programming

3. Greedy

4. Divide and Conquer

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3. Greedy

Question 78 : Among the following, which one is NOT a regular expression?

1. (1+2+0)*(1+2)

2. [(0+1)-(0b+a1)*(a+b)]*

3. [(a+b)*(aa+bb)]*

4. (01+11+10)*

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2. [(0+1)-(0b+a1)*(a+b)]*

Question 79 : Given a 4-input AND gate, how many inputs must be HIGH in order for the output of the logic gate to go HIGH?

1. any two of the inputs

2. any one of the inputs

3. any three of the inputs

4. all four inputs

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4. all four inputs

Question 80 : Let P be the risk probability, L be the loss, then Risk Exposure(RE) is computed as

1. RE=P+L

2. RE=P/L

3. RE=P*L

4. RE=2*P*L

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3. RE=P*L

Question 81 : Virtual memory is

1. less efficient in utilization of memory

2. used in all major commercial operating systems

3. simple to implement

4. useful when fast I/O devices are not available

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2. used in all major commercial operating systems

Question 82 : If we are to debug an implementation of a quicksort that is supposed to sort an array in ascending order, after the first partition step has been completed, the contents of the array are in the following order 2 10 1 14 17 24 22 20

1. The pivot could have been either 14 or 17

2. Neither 14 nor 17 could have been the pivot

3. The pivot could have been 17, but could not have been 14

4. The pivot could have been 14, but could not have been 17

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1. The pivot could have been either 14 or 17

Question 83 : An n-bit microprocessor has

1. n-bit program counter

2. n-bit ALU

3. n-bit address register

4. n-bit instruction register

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4. n-bit instruction register

Question 84 : Which one of the following is NOT a scripting language?

1. Javascript

2. HTML

3. Postscript

4. XML

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3. Postscript

Question 85 : Which one of the language paradigms express the addition of two values as (+10 20)?

1. procedural

2. object-oriented

3. logic

4. functional

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4. functional

Question 86 : In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed

1. before using spiral model

2. in the first and second loop

3. in every loop

4. in the first loop

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3. in every loop

Question 87 : Merging four sorted files containing 50, 10, 25 and 15 records respectively takes ________ time

1. O(200)

2. O(175)

3. O(125)

4. O(100)

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4. O(100)

Question 88 : Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental process state?

1. blocked

2. ready

3. terminated

4. executing

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1. blocked

Question 89 : The circuit that is used to store one bit of data is

1. Decoder

2. Register

3. Encoder

4. Flip Flop

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4. Flip Flop

Question 90 : Average time required to reach a storage location in memory and read its contents is

1. turnaround time

2. transfer time

3. seek time

4. access time

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4. access time

Question 91 : Using Bubble sort, the number of interchanges required to sort 5, 1, 6, 2 and 4 in ascending order is

1. 7

2. 5

3. 8

4. 6

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2. 5

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 144/2013

Higher Secondary School Teacher – 144-2013

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 29-08-2014

Alphacode A

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Junior Instructor MRAC - 594-2017

Junior Instructor MRAC – 594-2017

Category Code: 594/2017

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 19-07-2018

Department Industrial Training

Alphacode A

Question 1 : Who among the following is described as “First Generation Feminist” ?

1. Arya Pallam

2. Akkamma Cheriyan

3. Anna Chandi

4. Parvathy Nenmenimangalam

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3. Anna Chandi

Question 2 : Which film got the ‘Best Film Award in the `89^(th)` Oscar Award Ceremony in 2017 ?

1. Fences

2. Moonlight

3. La La Land

4. Lion

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2. Moonlight

Question 3 : Who was called the Lincoln of Kerala ?

1. Ayyankali

2. Pandit K. P. Karuppan

3. Sree Narayana Guru

4. Sahodaran Ayyappan

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2. Pandit K. P. Karuppan

Question 4 : Who wrote the autobiography ‘Aathmakadhakkoru Amukham’ ?

1. Lalithambika Antarjanam

2. A. V. Kuttimalu Amma

3. Lalitha Prabhu

4. K. Devayani

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1. Lalithambika Antarjanam

Question 5 : Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Fundamental Rights ?

1. Preamble

2. Part II

3. Part III

4. Part IV

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3. Part III

Question 6 : Name the first private bank in Kerala

1. The Imperial Bank

2. The Chartered Bank

3. The Indian National Bank

4. Nedungudi Bank

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4. Nedungudi Bank

Question 7 : Where was the Paliyam road situated ?

1. Chendamangalam

2. Vaikom

3. Guruvayur

4. Udayamperur

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1. Chendamangalam

Question 8 : From which place in Kerala the first newspaper Rajyasamacharam was published ?

1. Chirakkal

2. Vadakara

3. Ottapalam

4. Tellichery

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4. Tellichery

Question 9 : Who founded Samatva Samajam ?

1. Vaikunda Swami

2. Chattampi Swamikal

3. Nitya Chaitanya Yati

4. Nataraja Guru

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1. Vaikunda Swami

Question 10 : In which year the National Food Security Act was passed in India ?

1. 2000

2. 2007

3. 2013

4. 2017

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3. 2013

Question 11 : Who was the Editor of the magazine ‘Rasikaranjini’ ?

1. Kerala Varma Valiyakoyi Thampuran

2. Ramakrishna Pillai

3. Kodungallur Kunhikuttan Thampuran

4. None of the above

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3. Kodungallur Kunhikuttan Thampuran

Question 12 : Who was the translator of the conversation between Rabindranath Tagore and Sree Narayana Guru when they met at Sivagiri in 1922 ?

1. Dr. Palpu

2. R. Sankar

3. T. K. Madhavan

4. Kumaranasan

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4. Kumaranasan

Question 13 : From which country Indian Constitution borrowed Federal System ?

1. Russia

2. Britain

3. Germany

4. Canada

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4. Canada

Question 14 : Name the magazine founded by M. C. Joseph

1. Kalakaumudi

2. Keraleeyam

3. Yukthivadi

4. Prabodhanam

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3. Yukthivadi

Question 15 : In which year the Hindus in Cochin got permission to temple entry ?

1. 1936

2. 1948

3. 1950

4. 1956

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2. 1948

Question 16 : Name the movement founded by Vandana Siva

1. Navadanya Movement

2. Narmada Bachao Andolan

3. Chipko Movement

4. Plachimada Struggle

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1. Navadanya Movement

Question 17 : Who initiated the Kerala Granhasala Sangham ?

1. K. N. Panicker

2. P. N. Panicker

3. Ulloor S. Parameswara Iyer

4. Vallathol Narayana Menon

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2. P. N. Panicker

Question 18 : Which day is observed as World Teacher’s Day ?

1. None of the above

2. October 5

3. November 5

4. December 5

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1. None of the above

Question 19 : Name the place where the play Atukalayilninnu Arangatheku was staged for the first time

1. Angadippuram

2. Pallimukku

3. Thirunavaya

4. Edakunni

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4. Edakunni

Question 20 : Name the Travancore Diwan who gave permission to wear blouse to all those women who embraced Christianity

1. Colonel Munro

2. M. E. Watts

3. Thomas Austin

4. None of the above

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1. Colonel Munro

Question 21 : Which colour wire is recommended for earthing as per IS code ?

1. Red

2. Blue

3. Black

4. Green

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4. Green

Question 22 : A Watt meter is used to measure _______________

1. Only A.C. current

2. Only D.C. current

3. A.C. or D.C. power

4. A.C. voltage

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3. A.C. or D.C. power

Question 23 : Suitable motor for the compressor of a split Air Conditioner is ______________

1. RSIR

2. CSIR

3. PSC or CSR

4. None of these

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3. PSC or CSR

Question 24 : The relay used in H.C. Refrigerant is ___________

1. LMS type

2. Voltage type

3. PTC type

4. Current type

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4. Current type

Question 25 : What is the reason for overheating of the compressor of a Refrigerator ?

1. High working voltage

2. Poor condensation

3. Excess refrigerant in the system

4. All of these

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4. All of these

Question 26 : The Latent Heat Value of `NH_(3)` Refrigerant is __________

1. 650 BTU/lb

2. 560 BTU/lb

3. 565 BTU/lb

4. 465 BTU/lb

Click here for answer

3. 565 BTU/lb

Question 27 : De-foresting timer is used for _________ in frost free refrigerator.

1. Disconnecting the heater

2. Connecting the heater

3. Connecting and disconnecting the compressor

4. Operating compressor and heater

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4. Operating compressor and heater

Question 28 : The eco-friendly refrigerant is _____________

1. Freon-12

2. Freon-22

3. Hydro carbon

4. None of these

Click here for answer

3. Hydro carbon

Question 29 : Drier Strainer is used in Refrigeration System for

1. Removing dust from air flow

2. Removing moisture and air from refrigerant

3. Removing non-condensable gas from air

4. Removing dust particles and moisture from refrigerant

Click here for answer

4. Removing dust particles and moisture from refrigerant

Question 30 : Before compression, the condition of the Refrigerant is __________

1. Low Pressure and Temperature Liquid

2. High Pressure and Temperature Vapour

3. Low Pressure and Low Temperature Gas

4. High Pressure and Temperature Gas

Click here for answer

3. Low Pressure and Low Temperature Gas

Question 31 : Use of Heat exchanger is _______________

1. Super heats the liquid line

2. Sub-cool the section line

3. Heat exchanges suction line to discharge line

4. Heat exchanges liquid line to suction line

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4. Heat exchanges liquid line to suction line

Question 32 : Suction pressure of ice plant with `NH_(3)` Refrigerant is ___________

1. 65 to 75 psig

2. 80 to 90 psig

3. Below 30 psig

4. Above 100 psig

Click here for answer

3. Below 30 psig

Question 33 : In summer season the Air Conditioner trips though OLP. What is the reason ?

1. Condenser may air block and ambient temperature is low

2. Ambient temperature is low

3. Condenser air block and high ambient temperature

4. Over speed of condenser fan

Click here for answer

3. Condenser air block and high ambient temperature

Question 34 : Frost Free Refrigerator defrosting method is _________________

1. Hot gas defrosting

2. Manual defrosting

3. Water spray defrosting

4. Electric heater defrosting

Click here for answer

4. Electric heater defrosting

Question 35 : Water cooled condenser is used in ____________

1. Split air conditioner

2. Window air conditioner

3. Water cooler

4. Central air conditioning plant

Click here for answer

4. Central air conditioning plant

Question 36 : Secondary refrigerant is used in ______________

1. Milk Chilling Plant

2. Chilling Plant

3. Ice Plant

4. All of these

Click here for answer

4. All of these

Question 37 : The R.H. of air required for human comfort is ___________

1. 25%

2. 75%

3. 50%

4. None of these

Click here for answer

4. None of these

Question 38 : On Psychrometric Chart wet bulb temperature lines are __________

1. Horizontal

2. Vertical

3. Straight inclined sloping downward to the right

4. Curved

Click here for answer

3. Straight inclined sloping downward to the right

Question 39 : Tachometer is used to measure ____________

1. Humidity in air

2. Velocity of air

3. Density of air

4. Speed of compressor

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4. Speed of compressor

Question 40 : −252°F is equal to ________________ degree celsius.

1. −160.7

2. −167.7

3. −150.77

4. −157.77

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4. −157.77

Question 41 : An air conditioner consumes 5 Amps from 240 Volts and the PF is 0.8 its power is _________

1. 690 Watts

2. 985 Watts

3. 950 Watts

4. 960 Watts

Click here for answer

4. 960 Watts

Question 42 : _______________ Compressor has less EER.

1. Reciprocating Compressor

2. Rotary Compressor

3. Centrifugal Compressor

4. Screw Compressor

Click here for answer

1. Reciprocating Compressor

Question 43 : An oil separator is installed in-between _________

1. Receiver and Expansion Valve

2. Compressor and Condenser

3. Condenser and Receiver

4. Evaporator and Compressor

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2. Compressor and Condenser

Question 44 : Piercing valve is used to _____________

1. Recover the gas

2. Pinch the charging line

3. Release the gas out

4. Recover the oil

Click here for answer

1. Recover the gas

Question 45 : Diameter of Capillary tube used in Refrigerator is _____________

1. 0.055 inch

2. 0.0361 inch

3. 0.065 inch

4. 0.0255 inch

Click here for answer

2. 0.0361 inch

Question 46 : Automatic expansion valve controls the flow of Refrigerant to evaporator according to _______

1. Pressure

2. Temperature

3. Pressure and Temperature

4. None of these

Click here for answer

1. Pressure

Question 47 : Dry ice is used for

1. Cooling water

2. Cooling milk

3. Preserving food stuffs

4. None of these

Click here for answer

3. Preserving food stuffs

Question 48 : Substitute of Freon-12 refrigerant is __________

1. 134 a

2. Freon-22

3. Freon-11

4. None of these

Click here for answer

1. 134 a

Question 49 : Secondary Refrigerant is useful because _________

1. It is cheap

2. Easily available

3. It reduces the primary Refrigerant Piping

4. None of these

Click here for answer

3. It reduces the primary Refrigerant Piping

Question 50 : In Split air conditioners the following condenser is used ___________

1. Forced convection air cooled

2. Natural Convection air cooled

3. Water cooled

4. Evaporative type

Click here for answer

1. Forced convection air cooled

Question 51 : When is the Vacuum Pump used in refrigeration system ?

1. After gas charging

2. Before gas charging

3. Before leak arresting

4. Before oil charging

Click here for answer

2. Before gas charging

Question 52 : For easy bending and Flaring we use __________

1. Annealed copper tube

2. Plastic tube

3. Brass tube

4. M. S. tube

Click here for answer

1. Annealed copper tube

Question 53 : The Refrigerant for a Refrigerator should have ____________

1. High sensible heat

2. Low latent heat

3. High latent heat

4. Low sensible heat

Click here for answer

3. High latent heat

Question 54 : Most of the domestic Refrigerators work on the following Refrigeration system

1. Vapour Compression System

2. Vapour Absorption System

3. Thermo Electric System

4. Air Compression System

Click here for answer

1. Vapour Compression System

Question 55 : The dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature becomes equal at ___________ % RH.

1. 100%

2. 90%

3. 50%

4. None of these

Click here for answer

1. 100%

Question 56 : The chemical formula of R. 22 refrigerant is __________

1. `C Cl_(2)F_(2)`

2. `CHClF_(2)`

3. `C CLF_(2)`

4. `CHCl_(2)F_(2)`

Click here for answer

2. `CHClF_(2)`

Question 57 : Halide torch is used for ______________ Refrigerants.

1. Detect Leak of `NH_(3)`

2. Detect leak of `CO_(2)`

3. Detect leak of Freon group

4. None of these

Click here for answer

3. Detect leak of Freon group

Question 58 : Temperature control device used in Air Conditioner is known as __________

1. Thermostatic Expansion Valve

2. Thermostatic switch

3. A.E.V.

4. H.P.C.

Click here for answer

2. Thermostatic switch

Question 59 : Volumetric efficiency of a compressor is expressed in _____________

1. Percentage

2. Calorie/Hr.

3. BTU/Hr.

4. Psig

Click here for answer

1. Percentage

Question 60 : Inverter Refrigerator is working under the principle of

1. Frequency modulating

2. Voltage modulating

3. Current modulating

4. None of these

Click here for answer

1. Frequency modulating

Question 61 : Inverter Air Conditioner consumes ___________ current.

1. More

2. Less

3. Very high

4. None of these

Click here for answer

2. Less

Question 62 : The term called triple point is _____________

1. The temperature condition of a substance at solid state

2. The pressure condition of a substance at liquid state

3. The pressure/temperature condition is in balance at vapour state

4. The Pressure/Temperature condition in which a substance is in balance in solid, liquid and vapour state

Click here for answer

4. The Pressure/Temperature condition in which a substance is in balance in solid, liquid and vapour state

Question 63 : Bi-metal thermostatis a device used in _____________

1. Pressure circuit

2. TEV circuit

3. Defrosting circuit

4. Compressor circuit

Click here for answer

3. Defrosting circuit

Question 64 : Many bubbles in the liquid line sight glass are a sign that the system is

1. Properly charged

2. Contaminated with air

3. Under charged

4. Over charged

Click here for answer

3. Under charged

Question 65 : The main parts of a Rotary Compressor are _____________

1. Cylinder and piston

2. Rotor and crank shaft

3. Roller and cylinder

4. All of the above

Click here for answer

3. Roller and cylinder

Question 66 : High side float valve is used in ____________

1. Dry type evaporator

2. Non-frosting evaporator

3. Flooded type evaporator

4. All of the above

Click here for answer

3. Flooded type evaporator

Question 67 : Modification of R-12 to R-134a refrigerant in a refrigeration system is called ___________

1. Recovery

2. Retrofit

3. Refilling

4. Pump down

Click here for answer

2. Retrofit

Question 68 : Car Air Conditioner is a ____________ system.

1. Vapour absorption

2. Vapour Compression

3. Air Compression

4. None of these

Click here for answer

2. Vapour Compression

Question 69 : Magnetic Clutch is used in _____________

1. Split A/C

2. Window A/C

3. Car A/C

4. Package A/C

Click here for answer

3. Car A/C

Question 70 : Chilling plant is called as ____________

1. Direct A/C Plant

2. Indirect A/C Plant

3. Multi split A/C

4. None of these

Click here for answer

2. Indirect A/C Plant

Question 71 : Chilled milk temperature in a milk chilling plant is ____________

1. −5°C to 0°C

2. 10°C to 12°C

3. 2°C to 10°C

4. None of these

Click here for answer

3. 2°C to 10°C

Question 72 : Sling Psychrometer is used to measure ____________

1. Relative humidity

2. Dry bulb and wet bulb temperature

3. Cooling and heating of air supply

4. None of these

Click here for answer

2. Dry bulb and wet bulb temperature

Question 73 : Voltage type relay is used in _______________ compressor motor.

1. CSIR

2. CSR

3. RSIR

4. PSC

Click here for answer

2. CSR

Question 74 : For condenser flushing __________ is used.

1. CTC

2. Trichloro ethylene

3. Petrol

4. All of these

Click here for answer

2. Trichloro ethylene

Question 75 : Mechanical Refrigeration system is also called as _____________

1. Vapour absorption system

2. Vapour compression system

3. Liquid vapour system

4. All of these

Click here for answer

2. Vapour compression system

Question 76 : Voltage type relay coil is connected to motor starting terminal is in ______________

1. Series

2. Parallel

3. Series and parallel

4. Series at starting time then parallel

Click here for answer

2. Parallel

Question 77 : Thestarting capacitor value of a 1 Ton Split A/C is __________

1. 40 to 60 mfd

2. 80 to 100 mfd

3. 100 to 120 mfd

4. None of these

Click here for answer

2. 80 to 100 mfd

Question 78 : _____________ method is used to detect leaksin Refrigeration system.

1. Observation

2. Soap Bubble

3. Water tank dipping

4. All of these

Click here for answer

4. All of these

Question 79 : Finand tube type evaporator is used in ____________

1. Window AC

2. Package AC

3. Split AC

4. All of these

Click here for answer

4. All of these

Question 80 : Direct Cool Refrigerator is also called as ____________

1. Conventional type Refrigerator

2. Frost free Refrigerator

3. Non-frost Refrigerator

4. None of these

Click here for answer

1. Conventional type Refrigerator

Question 81 : The safest chemical to use for descaling is _________

1. Sulphuric acid

2. Diluted HCl

3. Diluted Nitric acid

4. Bleaching powder

Click here for answer

2. Diluted HCl

Question 82 : The purpose of air filter in air conditioning system is ___________

1. To remove dust and dirt from air

2. To remove dust from refrigerant

3. To remove humidity from air

4. To remove air from A/C space

Click here for answer

1. To remove dust and dirt from air

Question 83 : In hot gas by pass method of capacity control of compressor, the hot compressed gas is _________

1. By passed back to liquid line

2. By passed back to suction line

3. By passed back to evaporator line

4. By passed back to liquid receiver

Click here for answer

2. By passed back to suction line

Question 84 : The capacity of refrigerator is expressed in ____________

1. Litre

2. Tons of Refrigeration

3. k Cal/TR

4. None of these

Click here for answer

1. Litre

Question 85 : Tap used to avoid water wastage is __________

1. Push tap

2. Ball tap

3. Lever type tap

4. Regulating tap

Click here for answer

1. Push tap

Question 86 : Floor level of water cooler to be checked by _________

1. Measuring scale

2. Viewing perpendicularly

3. Using spirit level

4. Using tube level

Click here for answer

3. Using spirit level

Question 87 : Dead nut is used in Refrigeration flare fittings ____________

1. For closing a connection end

2. For controlling a line

3. For operating on and off

4. None of these

Click here for answer

1. For closing a connection end

Question 88 : The bush bearing of a compressor is lubricated by _____________

1. Oil

2. Grease

3. Refrigerant

4. Air and water

Click here for answer

1. Oil

Question 89 : Cylinder colour code of R134 a is _________

1. Orange

2. Green

3. White

4. Orchid

Click here for answer

3. White

Question 90 : What is the use of Crank case oil heater ?

1. Heats up the oil when compressor is idle

2. Heats up the oil when compressor is ON

3. Heats up the Refrigerant in crank case

4. None of these

Click here for answer

1. Heats up the oil when compressor is idle

Question 91 : Pressure relief valve is installed on ___________

1. Compressor head

2. Liquid receiver

3. Discharge line of compressor

4. All of these

Click here for answer

4. All of these

Question 92 : H.C. blend contains ______________

1. 40% isobutene and 60% propane

2. 50% isobutane and 50% propane

3. 50% hydrogen and 50% carbon

4. 50% fluorine and 50% oxygen

Click here for answer

2. 50% isobutane and 50% propane

Question 93 : Fan motor of split Air conditioner of 1 Ton capacity is __________

1. PSC

2. RSIR

3. CSR

4. Shade pole

Click here for answer

1. PSC

Question 94 : Spray nozzles of cooling tower is used for __________

1. Sprays the water from evaporator

2. Sprinkle the water from condenser

3. Sprays the water from chiller

4. All of these

Click here for answer

2. Sprinkle the water from condenser

Question 95 : Evaporative condenser is used in _____________

1. Ice plant

2. Split air conditioner

3. Package air conditioner

4. Window air conditioner

Click here for answer

1. Ice plant

Question 96 : Thermometer is to measure the __________

1. Latent heat

2. Sensible heat

3. Thermo heat

4. Specific heat

Click here for answer

2. Sensible heat

Question 97 : Duct is used to __________

1. Distribute air from AHU to confined space

2. AHU to out side of A/C room

3. Return air from confined space to AHU

4. All of these

Click here for answer

4. All of these

Question 98 : Pully Puller is used to remove __________

1. Fly wheel and bearings from shaft

2. Shaft from compressor

3. Piston from cylinderpully

4. Rings from piston

Click here for answer

1. Fly wheel and bearings from shaft

Question 99 : Three phase motor is used in _____________

1. Package A/C

2. Multy split A/C

3. Central A/C Plant

4. All of these

Click here for answer

4. All of these

Question 100 : Service valve is used for ______________

1. Charging gas to system

2. Pressure testing

3. Evacuating

4. All of these

Click here for answer

4. All of these

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 37/2018/OL

Category Code: 594/2017

Junior Instructor MRAC – 594-2017

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 19-07-2018

Department Industrial Training

Alphacode A

Senior Lecturer in Paediatrics NCA-14/2018

Senior Lecturer in Paediatrics NCA

Question Paper Code: 14/2018/OL

Category Code: 040/2017

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 07-03-2018

Department Medical Education

Alphacode A

Question 1 : Article of Indian Constitution deals with Prohibition of Child Labour

1. 17

2. 21

3. 21 (A)

4. 24

Click here for answer

4. 24

Question 2 : Who nominates the chairperson of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament ?

1. President

2. Prime Minister

3. Speaker of Lok Sabha

4. Finance Minister

Click here for answer

3. Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 3 : Lok Sabha passed the Whistle Blowers Protection Act in

1. 2011

2. 2012

3. 2013

4. 2014

Click here for answer

1. 2011

Question 4 : Budget Allocation in crores for Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme for the financial year 2017-18

1. 34699

2. 38500

3. 48000

4. 60000

Click here for answer

3. 48000

Question 5 : Swachh Bharat progrmme is aiming to end open defecation by

1. 2018

2. 2019

3. 2020

4. 2021

Click here for answer

2. 2019

Question 6 : Which city is included in AMRUT scheme of Central Government ?

1. Palakkad

2. Kottayam

3. Kannur

4. Kasargode

Click here for answer

1. Palakkad

Question 7 : The first “start-up” magazine in India

1. Business India

2. The Cofounder

3. Business Line

4. Entrepreneur

Click here for answer

2. The Cofounder

Question 8 : Which missionary group launched Tile Industry in Kerala ?

1. Salvation Army

2. CMS

3. LMS

4. BEM

Click here for answer

4. BEM

Question 9 : Acharabhooshanam is a work of

1. Chattambi Swami

2. Narayana Guru

3. Brahmananda Sivyogi

4. Pandit Karuppan

Click here for answer

4. Pandit Karuppan

Question 10 : Sahodaran Ayyappan organized Inter dining in 1917 at

1. Cherai

2. Mattancheri

3. Paravur

4. Kodungallur

Click here for answer

1. Cherai

Question 11 : Major issue raised by Malayali Memorial of 1891

1. Representation of backward classes in Legislative Assembly

2. Domination of Tamil Brahmins in Civil Service

3. Education of backward classes

4. Universal Voting right

Click here for answer

2. Domination of Tamil Brahmins in Civil Service

Question 12 : “Sreemathi” the womens journal was published by

1. Anna Chandi

2. Akkamma Cheriyan

3. Arya Pallam

4. K. Saraswathi Amma

Click here for answer

1. Anna Chandi

Question 13 : Narayana Guru consecrated the Mirror Idol at Kalavamkodam in

1. 1888

2. 1924

3. 1927

4. 1928

Click here for answer

3. 1927

Question 14 : Jatinashini Sabha of North Malabar was founded by

1. Vagbhatanandan

2. Swami Ananda Theerthan

3. Brahmananda Sivayogi

4. Nityachaitanya Yati

Click here for answer

2. Swami Ananda Theerthan

Question 15 : The Malayalam film Indulekha based on the novel of O. Chandu Menon was directed by

1. P. Bhaskaran

2. M. Krishnan Nair

3. Kalanilayam Krishnan Nair

4. Madhu

Click here for answer

3. Kalanilayam Krishnan Nair

Question 16 : Payment Banks came into existence as per the recommendations of the committee headed by

1. M. Nrasimham

2. Nachiket Mor

3. C. Rangarajan

4. Arvind Panagariya

Click here for answer

2. Nachiket Mor

Question 17 : Goods and Service Tax Council was constituted in

1. November 2009

2. December 2014

3. May 2015

4. September 2016

Click here for answer

4. September 2016

Question 18 : The 21st Conference of United Nations Framework Convention on climate change accorded its historic agreement in 2015 in

1. Paris

2. New York

3. Kyoto

4. Doha

Click here for answer

1. Paris

Question 19 : Who won FIFA Ballon d’or 2016 ?

1. Antoine Griezman

2. Neymar

3. Lionel Messi

4. Christiano Ronaldo

Click here for answer

4. Christiano Ronaldo

Question 20 : Empowerment project for the differently abled persons devised by Kerala IT Mission

1. Sampoorna

2. Samagra

3. Insight

4. Athulyam

Click here for answer

3. Insight

Question 21 : The WHO Child Growth Standards are based on data collected from

1. US, Brazil, Norway, Oman, Ghana, India

2. UK, Brazil, Denmark, Oman, Zambia, India

3. US, Brazil, Norway, Oman, Uganda, India

4. US, Brazil, New Zealand, Oman, Ghana, India

Click here for answer

1. US, Brazil, Norway, Oman, Ghana, India

Question 22 : VLBW infants catch up height by the age of

1. 18 months

2. 24 months

3. 30 months

4. 36 months

Click here for answer

3. 30 months

Question 23 : Failure to thrive is defined by

1. Dropping of weight for age over 2 major percentiles

2. Faltering of weight by 20%

3. Weight for height below 90%

4. Height for age less than 70%

Click here for answer

1. Dropping of weight for age over 2 major percentiles

Question 24 : The Goodenough Draw-a-Man test is used for

1. Assessment of Intelligence above the age of 3 years

2. Fine motor ability above the age of 5 years

3. Screening for autism above the age of 3 years

4. Assessment of cortical visuospatial functions above 6 years of age

Click here for answer

1. Assessment of Intelligence above the age of 3 years

Question 25 : Vineland Social Maturity Scale is used to assess

1. Social and adaptive behaviour in infancy

2. Social behaviour below 3 years

3. General understanding below 15 years

4. Social and adaptive behaviour upto 30 years

Click here for answer

4. Social and adaptive behaviour upto 30 years

Question 26 : Theory of mind is acquired by an individual

1. By 3 years of age

2. Between 3 and 5 years of age

3. Between 5 and 12 years of age

4. By 15 years of age

Click here for answer

2. Between 3 and 5 years of age

Question 27 : All of the following age-independent measures of nutritional status take into account height of the child, except

1. Kanawati index

2. QUAC stick

3. Rao’s index

4. Dugdale’s index

Click here for answer

1. Kanawati index

Question 28 : The RDA of Idoine for an infant below 6 months of age is

1. 10 mcg

2. 50 mcg

3. 110 mcg

4. 150 mcg

Click here for answer

3. 110 mcg

Question 29 : Protein content of 100 gms of Green Gram is

1. 14 gms

2. 18 gms

3. 24 gms

4. 28 gms

Click here for answer

3. 24 gms

Question 30 : Omega 3 fatty acids are not fount to be useful in treatment of

1. IgA nephropthy

2. Hypertriglyceridemia

3. Phrynoderma

4. PCOD

Click here for answer

4. PCOD

Question 31 : As per the WHO definition, an event is considered as an AEFI if it occurs

1. Within 24 hours

2. 48 hours

3. 7 days

4. None of the above

Click here for answer

4. None of the above

Question 32 : Dengue vaccine is

1. Chimeric vaccine

2. Live attenuated vaccine

3. Sub-unit vaccine

4. All of the above

Click here for answer

1. Chimeric vaccine

Question 33 : Steven-Johnson syndrome is commonly known to occur with all of the following except.

1. Phenobarbitone

2. Carbamazepine

3. Sodium valproate

4. Lamotrigine

Click here for answer

3. Sodium valproate

Question 34 : All of the following are used in the treatment of MRSA except

1. Vancomycin

2. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole

3. Co-amoxyclav

4. Linezolid

Click here for answer

3. Co-amoxyclav

Question 35 : The definition of ARDS is

1. PaO2/FiO2 less than 300 mmHg with PEEP of 5

2. Bilateral lung opactities not explained by consolidation or effusion

3. Origin of pulmonary edema not explained by cardiac causes or fluid overload

4. All of the above

Click here for answer

4. All of the above

Question 36 : Dyslipidemia is caused by all except

1. Lopinavir

2. Zidovudine

3. Atazanavir

4. Ritonavir

Click here for answer

1. Lopinavir

Question 37 : Which of the following is true about Diphtheria ?

1. The inclubation period of diphtheria is 4 days

2. If treated with Pencillin, it becomes non-infective after 1 week

3. Contacts should be treated with oral penicillin for 2 weeks

4. The shorter the duration of symptoms, the higher the dose of anti-toxin

Click here for answer

1. The inclubation period of diphtheria is 4 days

Question 38 : In the peripheral smear of a patient with malaria, the prophozoite is seen in larger RBCs in the case of

1. P. falciparum

2. P. vivax

3. P. malariae

4. None of the above

Click here for answer

2. P. vivax

Question 39 : Which of the following is not true about Post-streptococcal reactive arthristis ?

1. It responds dramatically to NSAIDs

2. Streptococcal pharyngitis precedes the arthritis by 2 weeks

3. It may involve any joint, large or small

4. There is a modest elevation of acute phase reactants

Click here for answer

1. It responds dramatically to NSAIDs

Question 40 : Individuals with Congenital Rubella are infective to others as they continue to carry the virus for prolonged periods in

1. Respiratory secretions

2. Urine

3. Blood

4. None of the above

Click here for answer

2. Urine

Question 41 : Exposure does not affect the odds of the outcome if the Odds Ratio is

1. Equal to 1

2. Less than 1

3. Less than 2

4. More than 1

Click here for answer

1. Equal to 1

Question 42 : The Chi-square test is used in the case of

1. Two independent groups with qualitative variables

2. Two independent groups with quantitative variables

3. More than 2 independent groups with quantitative variables

4. Two related groups with quantitative variables

Click here for answer

1. Two independent groups with qualitative variables

Question 43 : Tumor lysis syndrome is characterised by

1. Hyperphosphatemia

2. Hyponatremia

3. Hypocalcemia

4. Metabolic alkalosis

Click here for answer

1. Hyperphosphatemia

Question 44 : A good prognostic indicator in Acute Lymphoblastic leukemia is

1. BCR-ABL gene

2. Hyperdiploidy

3. Philadelphia chromosome

4. Amplification of AML 1 gene

Click here for answer

2. Hyperdiploidy

Question 45 : The risk of recurrence of atypical febrile seizures is

1. 3%

2. 6%

3. 9%

4. 12%

Click here for answer

2. 6%

Question 46 : WADA is a procedure to determine _____ in an individual.

1. Handedness

2. Visual ability

3. Area of the homunculus

4. Seizure focus

Click here for answer

1. Handedness

Question 47 : Which drug exacerbates seizures if given to a child with Benign Rolandic Epilepsy ?

1. Sodium valprorate

2. Phenytoin

3. Ethosuximide

4. Carbamazepine

Click here for answer

4. Carbamazepine

Question 48 : Lorenzo’s oil is used for treatment of

1. Maple syrup urine disease

2. Phenylketonuria

3. Krabbe’s disease

4. Adrenoleukodystrophy

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4. Adrenoleukodystrophy

Question 49 : Rapid sequence intubation refers to inducing a state of

1. Excellent intubating conditions within one minute

2. No cough or gag

3. Vocal cords well visualised and glottis open

4. None of the above

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1. Excellent intubating conditions within one minute

Question 50 : Chest compression in single-rescuer infant BLS is best done with

1. Heel of the hand

2. Two fingers

3. Two thumbs

4. Both hands

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2. Two fingers

Question 51 : Left axis deviation is seen in

1. Tetralogy of Fallot

2. Tricuspid atresia

3. Ebstein anomaly

4. Pulmonary atresia

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2. Tricuspid atresia

Question 52 : Nutmeg appearance of the liver is seen in

1. Biliary cirrhosis

2. Congestive cardiac failure

3. Portal hypertension

4. Wilson’s disease

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2. Congestive cardiac failure

Question 53 : Which of the following may be considered as abnormal in a 13 yr old girl who recently attained menarche ?

1. The next period occurring 4 months later

2. Irregular periods in the first 2 years after menarche

3. The next period lasting for 2 days

4. None of the above

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1. The next period occurring 4 months later

Question 54 : The Ferriman Gallwey score is used to grade.

1. Breast development

2. Bone age

3. Dental development

4. Hirsutism

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4. Hirsutism

Question 55 : Indication for ICD in empyema in children is based on

1. Clinical symptoms and signs

2. The cell count of the pleural fluid

3. The SAG ratio

4. The pH of the fluid

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1. Clinical symptoms and signs

Question 56 : Definition of steroid resistance in idiopathic nephrotic syndrome

1. No response to treatment after 4 weeks of daily Prednisolone 2mg/kg

2. No response to treatment after 6 weeks of daily Prednisolone 2mg/kg

3. No response to treatment after 4 weeks of daily Prednisolone 2mg/kg and 3 doses of pulsed methyl prednisolone

4. No response to treatment after 8 weeks of daily Prednisolone 2mg/kg

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1. No response to treatment after 4 weeks of daily Prednisolone 2mg/kg

Question 57 : Intervention for biliary atresia is imperative before

1. 4 weeks of age

2. 6 weeks of age

3. 8 weeks of age

4. 12 weeks of age

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3. 8 weeks of age

Question 58 : The following are true about Trisomy 18 except

1. Rocker-bottom feet are characteristically seen

2. Over-lapping of fingers is seen in the newborn

3. It is more common in males

4. Mosaicism is known to occur

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3. It is more common in males

Question 59 : Growth Hormone therapy is indicated in

1. Turner’s syndrome

2. Down syndrome

3. Constitutional growth delay

4. None of the above

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1. Turner’s syndrome

Question 60 : VDDR is characterised by

1. Elevated S. Calcium and hypercalciuria

2. Elevated S. Vitamin D levels

3. Hypercalcemia and tetany

4. Hyperphosphatemia and rickets

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3. Hypercalcemia and tetany

Question 61 : All of the following are seen in Glycogen storage disorder Type 1, except

1. Hypoglycaemia

2. Hyperuricemia

3. Hyperlipidemia

4. Low lactate levels

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4. Low lactate levels

Question 62 : Neonatal resuscitation may be with held if

1. Gestational age is less than 20 weeks, weight less than 400 gms

2. Gestational age is less than 26 weeks, weight less than 500 gms

3. Gestational age is less than 23 weeks, weight less than 400 gms

4. Gestational age is less than 25 weeks, weight less than 500 gms

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3. Gestational age is less than 23 weeks, weight less than 400 gms

Question 63 : Which of the following statements regarding Neonatal Hyperglycemia is true ?

1. It is defined as RBS more than 150mg/dL

2. It should always be treated with Insulin

3. It predisposes to diabetes in later life

4. It is a strong predictor of mortality

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1. It is defined as RBS more than 150mg/dL

Question 64 : Phototherapy of ________ wavelength is most effective to treat hyperbilirubinemia.

1. 320 nm

2. 400 nm

3. 460 nm

4. 520 nm

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3. 460 nm

Question 65 : Acute Peritoneal Dialysis

1. Is a good modality for management of the young infant with AKI

2. Is not safe in the hemodynamically unstable child

3. Is contraindicated in case of acute pulmonary edema

4. Often precipitates disequilibrium syndrome

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1. Is a good modality for management of the young infant with AKI

Question 66 : The theme of Breastfeeding Week 2017 was

1. Breastfeeding: a key to sustainably development

2. Sustaining breastfeeding together

3. Breasfeeding and work: let’s make it work

4. Breastfeeding: a winning goal for life

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1. Breastfeeding: a key to sustainably development

Question 67 : SDG 3 of the United Nations Development Program aims at

1. Good health and well-being

2. Zero hunger

3. No child deaths

4. Clean water and sanitation

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1. Good health and well-being

Question 68 : According to the updated WHO Essential drug list for children the ues of Chloramphenicol is recommended only for

1. Typhoid fever

2. Acute bacterial meningitis

3. Very severe pneumonia

4. Dysentery

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2. Acute bacterial meningitis

Question 69 : What is true about the Visual Analog Scale ?

1. Is also known as the Wong-Baker faces scale

2. Grades pain from zero to ten

3. Can be used reliably below the age of 7 years

4. Is a pain scale especially designed for use in childhood

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4. Is a pain scale especially designed for use in childhood

Question 70 : According to the current NACO guideline, Contrimoxazole prophylaxis is given to all of the following except.

1. Newborn baby of mother with HIV infection

2. Baby of indeterminate status

3. All children with HIV infection below 5 years of age

4. All children above 5 years with CD4 count below 350

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1. Newborn baby of mother with HIV infection

Question 71 : Alternate drugs which are used in chronic ITP in children are all except.

1. Dapsone

2. Mycophenolate mofetil

3. Rituximab

4. Cyclophosphamide

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4. Cyclophosphamide

Question 72 : Delayed dentition is defined by lack of dental eruption by

1. 11 months

2. 13 months

3. 15 months

4. 17 months

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2. 13 months

Question 73 : Prostaglandin E2 is an important mediator in the fetus that maintains the patency of the ductus arteriosus. It is produced in the

1. Fetal liver

2. Fetal lungs

3. Placenta

4. Ductal endothelium

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3. Placenta

Question 74 : A 3-days-old full term neonate is found to have a harsh systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border. There is no cyanosis. The likely diagnosis is

1. PDA

2. Innocent murmur

3. VSD

4. Truncus arteriosus

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3. VSD

Question 75 : A preterm baby of GA 32 weeks & birth weight 1300 gms, had Respiratory Distress Syndrome, which resolved after 48 hours. Feeds were started on day 3. On day 5 she developed abdominal distension and bilious gastric residuals. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

1. Neonatal sepsis

2. Maltrotation

3. Necrotising enterocolitis

4. Meconium ileus

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3. Necrotising enterocolitis

Question 76 : A 5-years old baby is admitted with fever of 6 days duration, coryza and hacking cough. On examination, he is febrile (T 100.4 deg F), RR is 28/min, there are small target-like erythematous maculopapular lesions on his trunk. Ausculation of the chest reveals equal breath sounds on both sides and a few scattered crepitations. His Chest X-ray shows poorly defined hilar exudates from both hilar regions. You will prescribe.

1. Amoxycillin

2. Erythromycin

3. Cloxacillin

4. Oseltamivir

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2. Erythromycin

Question 77 : 8-yr Anitha, who weight 25 kg, is admitted in a drowsy state, with thready pulse, deep sighing respiration and cool extremities. Her glucometer RBS value is 380mg/dL. You will administer.

1. Ringer lactate, 500 ml, as fast IV boluses over 20 minutes

2. Normal saline, 500 ml as fast drip over 30 minutes

3. Normal saline 250 ml over 1 hour

4. Ringer lactate 250 ml over 30 minutes

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3. Normal saline 250 ml over 1 hour

Question 78 : Manu, aged 5 yrs, is brought with fever and iritability since 2 days. On examination, he has generalized erythema with crusting around the mouth and nose. Your diagnosis is

1. Kawasaki’s disease

2. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

3. Erysipelas

4. Exathemsubitum

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2. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

Question 79 : Mary, a 30 yr old lady, is suffering from Bipolar Disorder. She has just been delivered of a term healthy infant. She is on treatment with Olanzepine for acute mania. Your approach to feeding the infant is

1. You will keep the baby safe in the nursery and feed him with formula

2. You will allow the baby to be breast fed just prior to the dose of olanzapine, in order that there is no sedation and the mother can bond with the infant

3. You will counsel her relatives regarding the unsuitability of the baby being reared by such a mother and advise that the baby may be put up for adoption

4. You will inform ‘Child Line’ services to manage the case.

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2. You will allow the baby to be breast fed just prior to the dose of olanzapine, in order that there is no sedation and the mother can bond with the infant

Question 80 : According to the IAP Consensus Statement on End of Life Care, with DNR (Do not Resuscitate) orders, a health care worker is not required to do the following except

1. Insert an advanced airway

2. Start chest compressions

3. Provide oxygen

4. Defibrillate the heart

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3. Provide oxygen

Question 81 : While providing Basic Life Support, the algorithm followed is

1. A-B-C Airway-Breathing-Circulation

2. C-B-C Chest compression-Breathing-Circulation

3. C-A-B Compression-Airway-Breathing

4. C-B-C Color-Breathing-Circulation

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3. C-A-B Compression-Airway-Breathing

Question 82 : A 3-year-old girl is brought with history of profuse watery diarrhea since 2 days. On examination, she is drowsy, her pulse rate is 140/min, her BP is 80/56, her core temperature is 103 deg F, the capillary filling time is 4 seconds. You will categories her physiological status as

1. Hypovolemic shock

2. Compensated shock

3. Septic shock

4. Hypotensive shock

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2. Compensated shock

Question 83 : Pranav, 4 yrs old, has come with colicky abdominal pain and swelling of both ankles. On the third day he develops palpable purpura on both lower limbs. You treatment will include

1. Paracetamol, hot formentation of joints and IV fluids if needed

2. Prednisolone 2mg/kg/day till the arthritis subsides

3. Deflazacort 6mg daily for 7 days and then tapered

4. Ibuprofen 10mg/kg for 3 days and reassess

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1. Paracetamol, hot formentation of joints and IV fluids if needed

Question 84 : NIRAMAYA is scheme of the Govt. of India with the following purpose.

1. Providing financial support to individuals with psychiatric illness

2. Social support to orphans

3. Health insurance for persons with disability

4. Providing employment to PLWA

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3. Health insurance for persons with disability

Question 85 : Meenu, 4 yrs, is brought with history of a mild URI 2 weeks ago, followed by inability to walk since 3 days. On examination she is found to have hypotonia, areflexia and weakness of all four limbs. She also has hoarseness, ineffective cough and intercostal weakness. How will you protector her airway ?

1. Rapid sequence intubation

2. Keeping her in the semiprone position and suctioning the oral cavity

3. Inserting an oral airway

4. Head tilt and chin lift

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2. Keeping her in the semiprone position and suctioning the oral cavity

Question 86 : Anti-snake vennon available in India protects against

1. Najanaja, Bungarusceruleus, Russel’s Viper

2. Pit viper, cobra, saw scaled viper

3. King cobra, krait, saw scaled viper

4. Hypnalehypnale, Najahana, Bungarus

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1. Najanaja, Bungarusceruleus, Russel’s Viper

Question 87 : Mini, 6 yrs old, is admitted with Acute Nephritis. She is hypertension and dyspnea with evidence of pulmonary edema. Her urine output is 50 ml in the last 12 hours. Her B. Urea is 160mg/dL, S Creat is 3.4mg/dL, S. Na is 124mE/L, S.K is 5.6mE/L. Your next line of management would be

1. Glucose insulin infusion, Inj. Frusemide, Oxygen inhalation and observe for the next 6 hours

2. Nitroprusside infusion, Inj. Frusemide, Oxygen inhalation and observe for 6 hrs

3. Early dialysis

4. Nitroglycerine drip, Glucose insulin infusion and Methyl prednisolone

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3. Early dialysis

Question 88 : Aswini, 10 yr old girl, is brought with history of headache since the last 2 months associated with tearfulness, apathy and refusal to go to school. Since 2 weeks she has fever and neck swellings. On examination she has pallor, palatal petechiae, cervical lymphadenopathy and a rash over the trunk and face suggestive of erythema multiforme. Detailed investigation is likely to reveal.

1. Mycoplasma infection

2. Tuberculosis

3. Systemic lupus erythematosus

4. Lymphoma

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3. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Question 89 : A 2 month old infant is admitted with history of URI and mild fever since 3 days with acute woresening 2 hours ago. On examination he is grunting, with pale extremities. His pulse is thready and you are unable to count his pulse. An important differential diagnosis is

1. Supraventricular tachycardia

2. H1N1 pneumonia

3. Septic shock

4. Poisoning with herbal medicine

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1. Supraventricular tachycardia

Question 90 : Which of the following is not a risk factor for late neonatal hypocalcemia ?

1. Maternal Vitamin D insufficiency

2. Feeding with cow’s milk

3. Maternal antriconvulsant use

4. Gestational diabetes

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4. Gestational diabetes

Question 91 : Testicular volume of 3 ml corresponds to

1. 3 yrs of age

2. 13 years of age

3. Prepubertal size

4. Early pubertal size

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3. Prepubertal size

Question 92 : Overweight in Indian children is defined by a BMI of

1. 23

2. 26

3. 27

4. 29

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1. 23

Question 93 : GAVI was launched with seed money provided by

1. Rotary International

2. Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation

3. World Bank

4. Asian Developement Bank

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2. Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation

Question 94 : What is not true of marijuana ?

1. It is the commonest illicit drug that is abused

2. It causes a dose dependent suppression of testosterone production

3. It is an anti-emetic

4. It does not produce a withdrawal syndrome

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1. It is the commonest illicit drug that is abused

Question 95 : According to the UNICEF, a young person is one aged between

1. 10 and 19 years

2. 15 and 24 years

3. 11 to 25 years

4. 19 to 25 years

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2. 15 and 24 years

Question 96 : Leukocyte Adhesion Defect is associated with all except.

1. Delayed separation of the umbilical cord

2. Gingivitis

3. Large pustular lesions

4. Significant neutrophillic leucocytosis

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3. Large pustular lesions

Question 97 : A 1 year old infant is brought with fever and muscosal bleeds and is found to have light hair and photophobia. Her peripheral smear shows neutrophils with plenty of large granules. A likely diagnosis is

1. May Hegglin anomaly

2. Hemophagocytosis

3. Chediak Higashi syndrome

4. Phenyl ketonuria

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3. Chediak Higashi syndrome

Question 98 : Preethi, 6 yrs, has come to you with failure to thrive. She has pallor, lymphadenopathy, bilateral parotoid fullness and early clubbing. Auscultation reveals scattered rales and crackles. She has mild hepatosplenomegaly. You will consider

1. Disseminated tuberculosis

2. Celiac disease

3. HIV infection

4. All of the above

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3. HIV infection

Question 99 : A 6 year old child who is known to have asthama is brought to you with respiratory failure. You will consider all of the following to treat him except.

1. Inj. Adrenaline

2. Nebulized Salbutamol

3. Inj. Methyl Prednisolone

4. Nebulized Ipratropium

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4. Nebulized Ipratropium

Question 100 : A 6-yr-old who is known to have asthama, is brought with acute breathlessness. He has a Becker’s score of 7. You will

1. Administer Salbutamol MDI 1 to 2 puffs every 2 to 5 minutes

2. Shift him to the oxygen inhalation, nebulised Salbutamol and IV steroid

3. Start mechanical ventilation

4. Investigate for pneumothorax

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2. Shift him to the oxygen inhalation, nebulised Salbutamol and IV steroid

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 14/2018/OL

Category Code: 040/2017

Exam: Senior Lecturer in Paediatrics NCA

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 07-03-2018

Department Medical Education

Alphacode A