Clinical Audiometrician-2019(256/2013)

Clinical Audiometrician

Question Paper Code: 1/2019/OL

Category Code: 256/2013

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 05-02-2019

Department Medical Education

Question 1 : Name the river that flows in between Vindhya- Satpura mountain ranges

1. Krishna

2. Godavari

3. Narmada

4. Tapti

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3. Narmada

Question 2 : Lushai Hills can be seen in

1. Assam

2. Sikkim

3. Manipur

4. Mizoram

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4. Mizoram

Question 3 : Which Indian state has the second largest coastal line in the country ?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Maharashtra

4. Tamil Nadu

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1. Andhra Pradesh

Question 4 : Name the largest salt lake of India.

1. Chilika Lake

2. Sambhar Lake

3. Wular Lake

4. Pushkar Lake

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1. Chilika Lake

Question 5 : Who was the author of the book ‘Planned Economy for India’ ?

1. Amartya Sen

2. Thomas Issac

3. Jawaharlal Nehru

4. M. Visveswarayya

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4. M. Visveswarayya

Question 6 : When was Kochi Mahajana Sabha founded ?

1. 1899

2. 1918

3. 1919

4. 1893

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2. 1918

Question 7 : Name the lengthiest dam of Kerala.

1. Malampuzha dam

2. Idukki dam

3. Mullaperiyar dam

4. Peechi dam

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1. Malampuzha dam

Question 8 : Who was the founder of Araya Vamsodharani Sabha ?

1. Ayyankkali

2. Ayya Vaikundar

3. Pandit Karuppan

4. T.K. Madhavan

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3. Pandit Karuppan

Question 9 : Who was the author of the book ‘Brahmashri Sree Narayana Guru’ ?

1. Kumaranasan

2. Vallathol Narayana Menon

3. Dr. Palpu

4. T. Bhaskaran

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4. T. Bhaskaran

Question 10 : Which Indian leader is popularly known as Deshbandhu ?

1. Subash Chandra Bose

2. Chittaranjan Das

3. W.C. Banerjee

4. Bipin Chandra Pal

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2. Chittaranjan Das

Question 11 : The Muslim League observed Direct Action Day on

1. August 16, 1946

2. December 20, 1946

3. June 25, 1946

4. May 18, 1946

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1. August 16, 1946

Question 12 : Name the revolutionary leader involved in the assassination of British Officer W.C. Rand.

1. Lala Hardayal

2. Bhagat Singh

3. Damodar Hari Chapekar

4. Pulin Das

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3. Damodar Hari Chapekar

Question 13 : Who was the leader of Bardoli Satyagraha ?

1. Annie Besant

2. M.A. Ansari

3. Lalalajpat Rai

4. Sardar Vallabhai Patel

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4. Sardar Vallabhai Patel

Question 14 : Which Five Year Plan was terminated one year before its completion ?

1. Second Five Year Plan

2. Fifth Five Year Plan

3. Fourth Five Year Plan

4. First Five Year Plan

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2. Fifth Five Year Plan

Question 15 : Name the player who won the Golden Ball Award in 2018 FIFA World Cup.

1. Gareth Bale

2. Serigo Ramos

3. Luka Modric

4. Cristiano Ronaldo

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3. Luka Modric

Question 16 : Who won the Nobel Peace Prize of 2018 ?

1. Nadia Murad

2. Jan Egeland

3. Angela Merkel

4. James P. Allison

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1. Nadia Murad

Question 17 : The Gangrel Dam is built across the river.

1. Yamuna

2. Vaiga

3. Mahanadi

4. Sutlej

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3. Mahanadi

Question 18 : Name the social reformer who founded an educational institution named ‘Thattvaprakashika’.

1. Sree Narayana Guru

2. Vaghbatananda

3. Ayyankali

4. Pandit Karuppan

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2. Vaghbatananda

Question 19 : Twenty first Commonwealth Games took place in the city of

1. Washington

2. Moscow

3. Gold Coast

4. Beijing

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3. Gold Coast

Question 20 : From the following find out the product that has been selected as a geographical indicator.

1. Calicut Halwa

2. Aranmula Kannadi

3. Ramasserry Iddli

4. Palakkadan Silk

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2. Aranmula Kannadi

Question 21 : Eustachian tube helps in maintaining the _______ ear pressure equal to atmospheric pressure.

1. External Ear

2. Middle Ear

3. Inner Ear

4. Auditory Nerve

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2. Middle Ear

Question 22 : Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by the damage to _________ Ear.

1. Middle Ear

2. Inner Ear

3. External Ear

4. Auditory Cortex

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2. Inner Ear

Question 23 : Auditory Training method given by Carhart consists of _______ Stages.

1. 3

2. 6

3. 2

4. 4

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4. 4

Question 24 : Full Form of OAE is

1. Oto Analysis Emission

2. Oral Acoustic Exam

3. Oto Acoustic Emission

4. Oral Arousal Emission

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3. Oto Acoustic Emission

Question 25 : Hair like projections on hair cells are known as

1. Spiral ganglion

2. Strial Cells

3. Stereocilia

4. Hair like projections

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3. Stereocilia

Question 26 : In Sensorineural hearing loss the gap between Air Conduction and Bone Conduction thresholds is

1. More than 20dB

2. More than 10dB

3. Less than 10dB

4. Less than 5dB

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3. Less than 10dB

Question 27 : Microphone of a hearing aid picks up acoustic signal and converts them into __________ signals.

1. Electric

2. Electroacoustic

3. Acoustic

4. Radio

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1. Electric

Question 28 : Audible Frequency range in humans is

1. 20 Hz to 200 Hz

2. 200 Hz to 2000 Hz

3. 20 Hz to 20000 Hz

4. 2000 Hz to 20000 Hz

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3. 20 Hz to 20000 Hz

Question 29 : The smallest bone in the human ear is

1. Incus

2. Stapes

3. Umbo

4. Malleus

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2. Stapes

Question 30 : High Risk hearing loss is associated with which one of the following conditions

1. Consanguinity

2. Low birth weight

3. Jaundice

4. All of a, b, c

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4. All of a, b, c

Question 31 : Raising Shaped audiometric configuration is seen in

1. Presbycusis

2. Rubella

3. Otosclerosis

4. Meneire’s Disease

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4. Meneire’s Disease

Question 32 : Prelingual hearing loss refers to the hearing loss which develops

1. After the language development

2. Before the language development

3. During the language development

4. All of a, b, c

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2. Before the language development

Question 33 : Ac unmasked threshold of left ear is marked on audiogram using __________ Symbol.

1. O

2. Triangle

3. X

4. Square

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3. X

Question 34 : ___________ test is done to know the functioning of Eustachian Tube.

1. Reflexometry

2. Audiometry

3. Tympanometry

4. None of a, b, c

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3. Tympanometry

Question 35 : Psychological Attribute of Intensity is

1. Loudness

2. Pitch

3. Velocity

4. Quality

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1. Loudness

Question 36 : The average intensity level of human conversation is around

1. 25 dB

2. 45 dB

3. 65 dB

4. 85 dB

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3. 65 dB

Question 37 : Inner hair cells in cochlea are placed in ___________ no. of rows.

1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

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2. 1

Question 38 : Pure Tone Average refers to the average of AC thresholds obtained at

1. 500, 1000 and 2000 Hz

2. 250, 500 and 1000 Hz

3. 750, 1500 and 3000 Hz

4. 500, 2000 and 4000 Hz

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1. 500, 1000 and 2000 Hz

Question 39 : White forelock is a characteristic of ____________ syndrome.

1. Waardenburg

2. Down

3. Usher’s

4. Treacher

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1. Waardenburg

Question 40 : 4 kHz notch is observed in audiogram of

1. Meniere’s disease

2. Otosclerosis

3. NIHL

4. Presbycusis

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3. NIHL

Question 41 : Which one of the following test is based on lateralization principle

1. Rinne

2. Weber

3. Schwabach

4. Bing

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2. Weber

Question 42 : In cochlear implantation ___________ are implanted in cochlea.

1. Electrodes

2. Hair Cells

3. Electrolytes

4. Ossicles

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1. Electrodes

Question 43 : Which one of the following is a test of speech audiometry ?

1. SDS

2. Lombard test

3. Stenger

4. SISI

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1. SDS

Question 44 : Wax or Cerumen in ear canal results in ___________ type of hearing loss.

1. Sensory

2. Conductive

3. Central

4. Mixed

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2. Conductive

Question 45 : Earmolds are useful in avoiding the _____________ feedback.

1. Visual

2. Acoustic

3. Bio

4. Electric

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2. Acoustic

Question 46 : Hearing loss without any organic problem in the ear is known as

1. Pseudohypocusis

2. Presbycusis

3. Prelingual hearing loss

4. Pseudohyperacusis

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1. Pseudohypocusis

Question 47 : Bilateral hearing loss refers to

1. Hearing loss found in one ear

2. Hearing loss found in both ears

3. Absence of hearing loss in both ears

4. Essentially

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2. Hearing loss found in both ears

Question 48 : Percentage of hearing diability required for the procurement of hearing aids free of cost under ADIP scheme

1. 20%

2. 50%

3. 40%

4. 60%

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3. 40%

Question 49 : Absence of pinna is known as

1. Atresia

2. Microtia

3. Stenosis

4. Anotia

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4. Anotia

Question 50 : Transducers used in cases of collapsing ear canals during air conduction testing are

1. Bone vibrator

2. Headphones

3. Insert earphones

4. All of the above

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3. Insert earphones

Question 51 : The deepest portion of the auricle is known as

1. Helix

2. Concha

3. Antihelix

4. Lobule

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2. Concha

Question 52 : Participation of non test ear in testing of test ear is removed using _________ procedure.

1. Masking

2. Cross hearing

3. Cross over

4. Interaural attenuation

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1. Masking

Question 53 : Amplification device which uses magnetic signal to transmit the teacher speech to children ?

1. FM hearing aids

2. Induction loop systems

3. Infra red systems

4. Hard wire system

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2. Induction loop systems

Question 54 : Hearing aid comprises of

1. Microphone

2. Amplifier

3. Receiver

4. All of the above

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4. All of the above

Question 55 : __________ Type of tympanogram is commonly seen in sensorineural hearing loss.

1. C

2. Ad

3. As

4. A

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4. A

Question 56 : Goal of aural rehabilitation is to

1. Improve speech reading

2. Make Maximum use of residual hearing

3. Assess the degree of the hearing handicap

4. All of the above

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4. All of the above

Question 57 : The cranial nerve responsible for sound conduction

1. Facial nerve

2. Trigeminal nerve

3. Vestibular nerve

4. Auditory nerve

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4. Auditory nerve

Question 58 : Choose the appropriate treatment for sensorineural hearing loss

1. Hearing aids

2. Ear wax removal

3. Radiation therapy

4. Gluten free diet

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1. Hearing aids

Question 59 : RCI full form

1. Rehabilitation Council of India

2. Receiver Canal Inserts

3. Revised Council of India

4. Rehabilitation Centre of India

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1. Rehabilitation Council of India

Question 60 : Which year the RPWD Act was enacted ?

1. 2014

2. 2016

3. 2015

4. 2017

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2. 2016

Question 61 : ____________ is the structure of resonatory system.

1. Trachea

2. Vocal folds

3. Lips

4. Nose

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4. Nose

Question 62 : Structure that are involved in speech production are

1. Lungs

2. Larynx

3. Tongue

4. All of a, b, c

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4. All of a, b, c

Question 63 : ___________ is a complex 2 way and intentional process of passing the message.

1. Speech

2. Language

3. Communication

4. None of a, b, c

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3. Communication

Question 64 : ___________ system is used in speech sounds production such as consonants and vowels.

1. Respiratory

2. Phonatory

3. Resonatory

4. Articulatory

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4. Articulatory

Question 65 : Central Nervous System consists of

1. Brain

2. Spinal Cord

3. Both a) and b)

4. None of a), b), c)

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3. Both a) and b)

Question 66 : Damage to _________area in the brain leads to problem in comprehension of speech.

1. Wernicke’s area

2. Broca’s area

3. Corpus Collusum

4. Striatum

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1. Wernicke’s area

Question 67 : Inonation, rate, stress features belongs to _________ of speech.

1. Semantics

2. Syntax

3. Prosody

4. Morphology

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3. Prosody

Question 68 : A person voice with diplophonia will have

1. Double pitch

2. Dipole pitch

3. Diluted pitch

4. Divergent pitch

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1. Double pitch

Question 69 : Pharynx is an important structure in determining __________ of speech.

1. Frequency

2. Intensity

3. Resonance

4. Nasality

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3. Resonance

Question 70 : Speech sounds that are produced by closure or narrowing of the air passage so that air stream is blocked completely or partially in mouth or comes out with out audible noise

1. Vowels

2. Consonants

3. Both of a) and b)

4. None of a) and b)

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2. Consonants

Question 71 : Place of articulation where the tongue tip is brought up to articulate with the flat part of alveolar ridge

1. Labiodentals

2. Palatals

3. Alveolar

4. Velar

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3. Alveolar

Question 72 : __________ is a bilabial plosive.

1. /t/

2. /d/

3. /g/

4. /p/

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4. /p/

Question 73 : __________ sounds are produced with an unobstructed open vocal tract.

1. Consonants

2. Vowels

3. Blends

4. Diphthongs

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2. Vowels

Question 74 : Series of syllable production by a child refers to

1. Cooing

2. Babbling

3. Yelling

4. None of a), b), c)

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2. Babbling

Question 75 : Fast rate of speech is known as

1. Bluttering

2. Stuttering

3. Cluttering

4. Fluttering

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3. Cluttering

Question 76 : What are the factors that affect speech and language development in children with hearing loss ?

1. Age of onset of HI

2. Type of hearing loss

3. Degree of HI

4. All a), b), c)

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4. All a), b), c)

Question 77 : Breathiness is disorder of voice

1. Loudness

2. Quality

3. Pitch

4. Intensity

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2. Quality

Question 78 : Using hand shapes and positions very close to lips to communicate refers to

1. Hand speech

2. Communicating speech

3. Cued speech

4. Cooing speech

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3. Cued speech

Question 79 : Auditory Verbal Therapy mainly focuses on

1. Listening

2. Lisping

3. Reading

4. Writing

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1. Listening

Question 80 : Androphonia refers to

1. Male person speaking like a female

2. Male person speaking like a baby

3. Female person speaking like a male

4. Female person speaking like a baby

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3. Female person speaking like a male

Question 81 : Intonation of speech refers to variations in __________ in connected speech as a function of time.

1. Pitch

2. Loudness

3. Quality

4. Shimmer

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1. Pitch

Question 82 : Speech problems in HI includes

1. Disorders of pitch

2. Vowel production

3. Irregularities in rate of speech

4. All of a), b), c)

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4. All of a), b), c)

Question 83 : Fluency of speech refers to __________ production of speech.

1. Smooth

2. Shivering

3. Silent

4. Straight

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1. Smooth

Question 84 : Replacing the target consonant /g/ by /k/ known as

1. distortion

2. addition

3. omission

4. substitution

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4. substitution

Question 85 : ___________ sounds are produced by bringing vocal folds together.

1. Glottal

2. Bilabial

3. Velar

4. b) and c)

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1. Glottal

Question 86 : Manual communication means

1. Use of sign system

2. Using natural body movements

3. Finger spelling

4. All of a), b), c)

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4. All of a), b), c)

Question 87 : Word like utterances produced during language development.

1. Jargon

2. Echolalia

3. Protocords

4. a) and b)

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3. Protocords

Question 88 : SLI refers to

1. Speech and Language Impairment

2. Specific Language Impairment

3. Speech and Language Index

4. Specific Language Information

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2. Specific Language Impairment

Question 89 : Phoneme is the _____________ unit of speech.

1. Basic

2. Broad

3. Blank

4. Bright

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1. Basic

Question 90 : ____________ is the study of use of the language.

1. Phonology

2. Morphology

3. Semantics

4. Pragmatics

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4. Pragmatics

Question 91 : Ability to use language appropriately as per demand refers to

1. Duality

2. Performance

3. Code switching

4. Competence

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4. Competence

Question 92 : Vital capacity is the volume of air breathed out after the deepest

1. Inhalation

2. Exhalation

3. Vocalization

4. Breathing

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1. Inhalation

Question 93 : Consonants are classified based on

1. Place and height of tongue

2. Height of tongue and rounding of lips

3. Place and manner of articulation

4. Manner of articulation and rounding of lips

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3. Place and manner of articulation

Question 94 : Nature of Language development in a mild mentally retarded will be

1. Delayed

2. Different

3. Deviant

4. Diverted

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1. Delayed

Question 95 : Multiples of fundamental frequency are known as

1. Harmonics

2. Formants

3. Spectra

4. None of a), b), c)

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1. Harmonics

Question 96 : Development of Reflexive vocalizations is marked at age

1. 2-3 years

2. 0-1 month

3. 4-6 months

4. 3-4 months

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2. 0-1 month

Question 97 : Which of the following are voiceless stops ?

1. S, Sh, h

2. m, n, j

3. b, d, g

4. p, t, k

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4. p, t, k

Question 98 : Structure separating the oral and nasal cavities is

1. Alveolar ridge

2. Palate

3. Tongue

4. Mandible

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2. Palate

Question 99 : Which of the following is true about natural method of teaching language ?

1. Child is taught language in a segmental manner

2. Child learns language without efforts

3. Development of language happens naturally

4. Both b) and c)

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4. Both b) and c)

Clinical Audiometrician

Question Paper Code: 1/2019/OL

Category Code: 256/2013

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 05-02-2019

Department Medical Education