Paper Code: 17/2019/OL
System Analyst/Programmer
Category Code: 021/2018
Medium of Question: English
Date of Test 25-05-2019
Department KPSC
Alphacode A
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Question 1 : Which among the following is not a fundamental right?
1. Right to equality
2. Right against exploitation
3. Right to freedom of religion
4. Right to acquire wealth
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4. Right to acquire wealth
Question 2 : The union list given in __________ schedule of Indian Constitution.
1. 5th schedule
2. 6th schedule
3. 7th schedule
4. 8th schedule
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3. 7th schedule
Question 3 : The objective of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is _________
1. Skill training to youth
2. Eradication of urban unemployment
3. Basic education to rural children
4. Employment guarantee to women
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1. Skill training to youth
Question 4 : Who among the following is not related to ‘Mappilapattu’?
1. Moyinkutty Vaidyar
2. Edarikkode Alikutty Kurikkal
3. O.M. Karuvarakundu
4. Chakkeeri Moideenkutty
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2. Edarikkode Alikutty Kurikkal
Question 5 : Who won the ‘Man Booker Prize 2018’?
1. Anna Burns
2. Richard Powers
3. Daisy Johnson
4. Chethan Bagath
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1. Anna Burns
Question 6 : Who was the Indian flag bearer of 2018 common wealth games closing ceremony?
1. P.V. Sindhu
2. Abhinav Bindra
3. Jeenson Joseph
4. Mary Kom
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4. Mary Kom
Question 7 : Who is the author of ‘Aarachaar’?
1. Sara Joseph
2. Subash Chandran
3. K.R. Meera
4. M. Mukundan
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3. K.R. Meera
Question 8 : Who is the author of ‘Muslim Janavum Vidyabhyasavum’ (Muslims and Education)
1. Vakkom Moulavi
2. Makthi Thangal
3. K.M. Moulavi
4. E.K. Aboobacker Musliyar
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2. Makthi Thangal
Question 9 : Name the Malayali woman congress leader imprisoned along with her two month old baby during civil disobedience movement
1. Kuttimalu Amma
2. Akkama Cheriyan
3. Arya Pallam
4. Lalitha Prabhu
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1. Kuttimalu Amma
Question 10 : How many people signed in Ezhava memorial?
1. 11218
2. 12178
3. 13276
4. 13176
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4. 13176
Question 11 : Who started the daily ‘Paschimodayam’?
1. Benjamine Baily
2. Hermen Gundert
3. K.P. Kesava Menon
4. Mamman Mappila
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2. Hermen Gundert
Question 12 : Who is the founder of ‘Samatwa Samajam’?
1. Sri Narayana Guru
2. Ayyankali
3. Vaikunda Swamikal
4. Sahodaran Ayyappan
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3. Vaikunda Swamikal
Question 13 : Who was the first signatory of ‘Malayali Memorial’?
1. K.P. Sankara Menon
2. G.P. Pillai
3. Dr. Palpu
4. C. Kesavan
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1. K.P. Sankara Menon
Question 14 : Mampuram Thangal came to India from _______
1. Saudi Arabia
2. Yemen
3. Iraq
4. Egypt
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2. Yemen
Question 15 : Who is the lone dissenter of Sabarimala temple women entry verdict of supreme court?
1. Dipak Misra
2. R.F. Nariman
3. A.M. Khawilkar
4. Indu Malhothra
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4. Indu Malhothra
Question 16 : Who issued temple entry proclamation?
1. Swathi Thirunal
2. Sri Moolam Thirunal
3. Sri Chithira Thirunal
4. Ayilyam Thirunal
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3. Sri Chithira Thirunal
Question 17 : Which among the following was ‘Melmundu Samaram’?
1. Paliyam Satyagraha
2. Kuttamkulam Satyagraha
3. Vaikom Satyagraha
4. Shanar Agitation
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4. Shanar Agitation
Question 18 : Who is known as the father of library movement in Kerala?
1. K.M. Panikkar
2. K.N. Panikkar
3. P.N. Panikkar
4. K.P. Panikkar
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3. P.N. Panikkar
Question 19 : Who is the author of the drama, ‘Koottukrishi’?
1. M.P. Battathiripad
2. Edasseri Govindan Nair
3. K. Damodaran
4. V.T. Battathiripad
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2. Edasseri Govindan Nair
Question 20 : Who among the following is not included modern Triumvirate of Malayalam poetry?
1. Cherusseri
2. Kumaran Asan
3. Vallathol
4. Ulloor
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1. Cherusseri
Question 21 : Let A, B and C are three finite sets. Find |A| if |A| = |B|, |A’uu’B| = 2a + 3b, and |A’nn’B| = b
1. a+2b
2. 2a+b
3. 2a+2b
4. a+b
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1. a+2b
Question 22 : A box contains 8 red and 6 yellow balls. The probability of drawing two balls of the same colour is
1. 42/98
2. 43/95
3. 43/91
4. None of the above
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3. 43/91
Question 23 : A die is tossed. If the number is odd, what is the probability that the number is prime?
1. 1/3
2. 2/3
3. 4/3
4. 3/4
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2. 2/3
Question 24 : Let `P(K)=1+3+5….+(2K-1)=3+K^2` . Then which of the following is true?
1. Principle of mathematical induction can be used to prove the formula
2. P(1) is correct
3. P(k) implies P(k+1)
4. None of the above
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3. P(k) implies P(k+1)
Question 25 : Three bags P, Q and R contains 20%, 40% and 40% of the total eggs produced in an industry. Past experience shows that 5%, 4% and 2% of the eggs contained in the respective bags are defective. If an egg was found to be defective, what is the the probability that the egg was from the bag P?
1. 10/36
2. 8/36
3. 10/34
4. 4/35
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3. 10/34
Question 26 : For the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, which of the following is true for the relation R = {(1,3), (1,4), (2,3),(2,4), (3,1), (4,1), (4,2), (3,4), (3,2)}
1. R is symmetric
2. R is transitive
3. R is antisymmetric
4. None of the above
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4. None of the above
Question 27 : A correlation coefficient of 1 means that
1. For every positive increase in one variable, there is a positive increase in a fixed proportion of the other variable
2. For every positive increase in one variable, there is a negative decrease in a fixed proportion of the other variable
3. For every positive increase in one variable, there is no change in a fixed proportion of the other variable
4. There is no relation between the variables
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1. For every positive increase in one variable, there is a positive increase in a fixed proportion of the other variable
Question 28 : Multiple regression is used
1. To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on multiple dependent variables
2. To predict scores on an dependent variable from scores on multiple dependent variables
3. To predict scores on an dependent variable from scores on multiple independent variables
4. To predict scores on an independent variable from scores on multiple independent variables
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3. To predict scores on an dependent variable from scores on multiple independent variables
Question 29 : Which of the following is not true when conducting multiple regression?
1. Data must be free from outliers for a multiple regression
2. Data must be heterogeneous for a multiple regression
3. Multiple regression can be used to access linear relationships
4. Data must be normally distributed for multiple regression
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2. Data must be heterogeneous for a multiple regression
Question 30 : As compared to TTL, CMOS logic has
1. Higher speed of operation
2. Higher power dissipation
3. Smaller physical size
4. All of the above
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3. Smaller physical size
Question 31 : Pin 21 of 8086 microprocessor is used for the signal
1. READY
2. ALE
3. RESET
4. QS1
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3. RESET
Question 32 : The Banker’s algorithm is used
1. To prevent deadlock in operating systems
2. To detect deadlock in operating systems
3. To avoid deadlock in operating systems
4. All of the above
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3. To avoid deadlock in operating systems
Question 33 : The performance of a digital computer improves when its RAM size increases. This is because
1. Size of virtual memory increases
2. Number of page faults are less
3. Larger RAMS are very faster
4. Number of segment faults are less
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2. Number of page faults are less
Question 34 : Multiplier Quotient register is placed in
1. Main Memory
2. CPU
3. I/O Equipment
4. None of these
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2. CPU
Question 35 : Which of the following is/are not true in contiguous allocation of disk space
1. Size of the file is to be declared in advance
2. There is no external fragmentation
3. Difficulty in finding space for a new file
4. Both 2 and 3
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2. There is no external fragmentation
Question 36 : Interrupt latency for real time OS should be
1. Maximum
2. Zero
3. Minimal
4. None of the above
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3. Minimal
Question 37 : Which of the following is an invalid shell variables?
1. india_15
2. _15_india
3. 15_india
4. Both 2 and 3
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3. 15_india
Question 38 : The time complexity of building a heap with ‘n’ elements is
1. O(n)
2. O(log n)
3. `O(n^2)`
4. O(n log n)
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1. O(n)
Question 39 : Which of the following is false regarding AVL trees?
1. AVL tree is more balanced than binary search tree
2. AVL tree is more space efficient than binary search tree
3. AVL tree is more time efficient than binary search tree
4. None of the above
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2. AVL tree is more space efficient than binary search tree
Question 40 : What is the worst case complexity of quicksort?
1. O(n log n)
2. O(n)
3. `O(n^2)`
4. O(log n)
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3. `O(n^2)`
Question 41 : Which data structure can be used to efficiently implement dijkstra’s algorithm?
1. Double ended queue
2. Priority queue
3. Stack
4. Binary search tree
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2. Priority queue
Question 42 : Which data structure is well suited for separate chaining?
1. Singly linked list
2. Doubly linked list
3. Circular linked list
4. Binary trees
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2. Doubly linked list
Question 43 : What is the return type of malloc()?
1. void*
2. pointer of allocated memory type
3. void**
4. int*
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1. void*
Question 44 : What does the following declaration mean? int (*ptr)[20];
1. ptr is array of pointers to 20 integers
2. ptr is a pointer to an array of 20 integers
3. ptr is an array of 20 integers
4. None of these
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2. ptr is a pointer to an array of 20 integers
Question 45 : If class C is derived from another class B which is derived from class A, which class will have minimum level of abstraction?
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. All have same level of abstraction
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3. Class C
Question 46 : Which of the following statement is false?
1. An abstract class is a class which cannot be instantiated
2. Creation of an object is not possible with abstract class but it can be inherited
3. An abstract class can contain only Abstract method
4. None of these
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3. An abstract class can contain only Abstract method
Question 47 : Which is the necessary condition for virtual function to achieve late binding?
1. Virtual function is to be accessed with direct name
2. Virtual functions is to be accessed using base class object only
3. Virtual function is to be accessed using pointer or reference
4. Virtual function is to be accessed using derived class object only
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3. Virtual function is to be accessed using pointer or reference
Question 48 : Operator overloading is
1. Making c++ operator works with objects
2. Giving new meaning to existing operator
3. Adding operation to the existing operators
4. All the above
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4. All the above
Question 49 : What are all the operators that cannot be overloaded?
1. Scope Resolution (::)
2. Member Selection (.)
3. New operator (new)
4. Both 1 and 2
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4. Both 1 and 2
Question 50 : Which two of the following methods are defined in class Thread?
1. Start and wait
2. Start and run
3. Wait and notify
4. Start Only
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2. Start and run
Question 51 : Which of these class object cannot be used to form a dynamic array in JAVA?
1. ArrayList
2. Map
3. Vector
4. ArrayList and Vector
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2. Map
Question 52 : In java applet programs, the applet life cycle functions are called in which order?
1. start(), init(), paint(), destroy(), stop()
2. init(), run(), start(), stop(), destroy()
3. init(), start(), paint(), stop(), destroy()
4. start(), run(), paint(), destroy(), stop()
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3. init(), start(), paint(), stop(), destroy()
Question 53 : The three notion of java virtual machine are
1. class, object, variable
2. specification, implementation, instance
3. primitive, referential, user defined
4. byte code, object code, executable
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2. specification, implementation, instance
Question 54 : Collection of entities that have the same attributes are called
1. Domain
2. Value set
3. Entity set
4. Entity type
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4. Entity type
Question 55 : Which of the following key is related with referential integrity constraint?
1. Primary key
2. Candidate key
3. Foreign key
4. Super key
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3. Foreign key
Question 56 : The SQL aggregate function that returns number of values in a given column is
1. count( )
2. count(*)
3. sum( )
4. All of the above
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1. count( )
Question 57 : Which of the following construct returns true if a given tuple is not present in the subquery
1. exists
2. not present
3. not exists
4. none of the above
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3. not exists
Question 58 : What will be the output of the following query? CREATE EmployeeView VIEW AS SELECT nothing FROM Employee WHERE ID < 100
1. EmployeeView will be created with no columns
2. EmployeeView will be created with column nothing
3. Syntax error
4. None of the above
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3. Syntax error
Question 59 : Consider a relation A with m rows and relation B with n rows. How many rows will be generated if A × B is performed?
1. m
2. m + n
3. m – n
4. m * n
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4. m * n
Question 60 : ________ is the statement which specifies when the trigger is to be executed.
1. From
2. Where
3. When
4. None of the above
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3. When
Question 61 : Which of the following is true about Atomicity?
1. Smallest unit of transaction
2. Either all of its operations are executed or none
3. Atleast one of the operation should be executed
4. All of the above
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2. Either all of its operations are executed or none
Question 62 : Which of the following differentiates Two-Phase Locking with Strict Two-Phase Locking in Concurrency control?
1. Release locks after usage
2. Release locks at commit
3. Cascading aborts
4. None of the above
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2. Release locks at commit
Question 63 : The middle layer of a three layer client/server architecture is called
1. Presentation layer
2. Application layer
3. Database layer
4. None of the above
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2. Application layer
Question 64 : Which of the following element in CSS allows authors to use external style sheets in their pages?
1. position
2. span
3. extern
4. link
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4. link
Question 65 : Which of the following object displays prompt dialog in JavaScript?
1. alert
2. prompt
3. document
4. window
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4. window
Question 66 : A technology for locating information in an XML document is
1. xPath
2. XSL
3. MathML
4. All of the above
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1. xPath
Question 67 : The method used in PHP to transfer binary data from client to server is
1. GET
2. POST
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above
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2. POST
Question 68 : The directive used to specify information needed by ASP.NET to process an ASPX file
1. Page
2. Register
3. Import
4. Master
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1. Page
Question 69 : Which object in AJAX applications manage asynchronous interaction with the server?
1. HttpURLConnection
2. HttpRequest
3. XMLHttpRequest
4. All of the above
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3. XMLHttpRequest
Question 70 : Cross-Site Scripting attacks are normally initiated by
1. Web Client
2. Web Server
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above
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1. Web Client
Question 71 : Which of the following in ASP.NET is a data source control method?
1. ExecuteReader
2. SqlDataReader
3. SqlCommand
4. SqlConnection
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4. SqlConnection
Question 72 : Which of the following function is used to exit from a PHP Script?
1. exit( )
2. die( )
3. both 1 and 2
4. none of the above
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3. both 1 and 2
Question 73 : Which one among the following is a private IP address?
1. 11.0.0.1
2. 168.172.29.41
3. 172.15.24.33
4. 192.168.24.40
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4. 192.168.24.40
Question 74 : Which layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer in the OSI model?
1. Application
2. Host-to-Host
3. Internet
4. Network Access
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2. Host-to-Host
Question 75 : Among the following IP address classes, which one provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
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3. Class C
Question 76 : You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
1. Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
2. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
3. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
4. Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
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2. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
Question 77 : You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
1. 32
2. 30
3. 8
4. 6
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4. 6
Question 78 : The number of unique substitution boxes in DES after the 48 bit XOR operation are
1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 12
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3. 8
Question 79 : For `p=11` and `q=17`, choose `e=7`. Find the plain text for the Cipher text 11 using the RSA algorithm
1. 88
2. 111
3. 122
4. 143
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1. 88
Question 80 : Which of the following is true about HTTP headers and connection management?
1. All HTTP responses must either close a connection or include a Content-Length:header to signify to end of a HTTP response body
2. The Host : field in HTTP allows the same web server to server content for multiple domains
3. When transferring many small Web objects, the only performance difference between persistent and non-persistent HTTP connections is related to connection establishment
4. HTTP headers have a fixed size
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2. The Host : field in HTTP allows the same web server to server content for multiple domains
Question 81 : Which of the following about UNIX socket programming is true? i. When a TCP sender calls close(), the network stack immediately sends a FIN packet to its peer .ii. send() on a TCP socket causes a sender to a generate a TCP/IP packet and send it out the appropriate network interface.iii. accept() returns when the receiver completes the three-way TCP handshake iv. The return value of recv() specifies the number of bytes read from a socket, or if the socket was closed or an error was encountered
1. i only
2. i and ii
3. iii and iv
4. iv only
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3. iii and iv
Question 82 : COCOMO stands for
1. Consumed Cost Model
2. Constructive Cost Model
3. Common Control Model
4. Composition Cost Model
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2. Constructive Cost Model
Question 83 : Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
1. Functional Requirement
2. Nonfunctional Requirement
3. Goals of implementation
4. Algorithm for software implementation
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4. Algorithm for software implementation
Question 84 : Software process and improvement are assessed by
1. ISO 9000
2. ISO 9001
3. SPICE (ISO/IEC15504)
4. Both 2 and 3
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4. Both 2 and 3
Question 85 : CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of
1. Develop the software
2. Improve the software process
3. Improve the testing process
4. All of the above
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2. Improve the software process
Question 86 : Alpha and Beta Testing are forms of
1. Acceptance testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Unit testing
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1. Acceptance testing
Question 87 : Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a
1. cause-effect graph
2. dependence matrix
3. structure chart
4. SRS
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2. dependence matrix
Question 88 : The tests that run every night during the project development or before a programmer checks in any changes to the global repository are normally characterized as
1. Integration tests
2. Regression tests
3. Validation tests
4. System tests
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2. Regression tests
Question 89 : Which of the following reason is valid ones for choosing a top-down process?
1. Developers can present a demo of the project to the management faster than using a bottom-up process
2. A top-down process is more time consuming because of the unit tests
3. In a top-down design, if an error is detected its always because a lower-level module is not meeting its specifications (because the higher-level ones are already been tested)
4. A top-down process makes it possible to detect performance problems faster
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1. Developers can present a demo of the project to the management faster than using a bottom-up process
Question 90 : Consider the following statements (i) Bottom-up testing is not an effective way to reveal architectural design flaws. (ii) Top-down testing can be time-consuming, because you need to write stubs for many modules.
1. Only (i) is true
2. Only (ii) is true
3. Both (i) and (ii) are true
4. Both (i) and (ii) are false
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3. Both (i) and (ii) are true
Question 91 : Consider the following statements . (i) When designing tests, if partitions are chosen perfectly, there is no point to testing boundary values near the edges of the partition. (ii) Glass-box tests designed for one implementation are valid to use when testing another implementation.
1. Only (i) is true
2. Only (ii) is true
3. Both (i) and (ii) are true
4. Both (i) and (ii) are false
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3. Both (i) and (ii) are true
Paper Code: 17/2019/OL
Category Code: 021/2018
Exam: System Analyst/Programmer
Medium of Question: English
Date of Test 25-05-2019
Department KPSC
Alphacode A
—
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