Assistant professor in Microbiology (NCA) - 031-2018

Assistant professor in Microbiology (NCA) – 031-2018

Question Paper Code: 6/2019/OL

Category Code: 031/2018

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 20-03-2019

Department Medical Education

Alphacode A

Question 1 : Which article defines the amendment of Indian constitution?

1. Article 368

2. Article 367

3. Article 395

4. Article 366

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1. Article 368

Question 2 : ‘Ormmakalude Bhramanapatham’ is the autobiography of

1. O. Madhavan

2. Nambi Narayanan

3. G. Madhavan Nair

4. Varghese Vaidyan

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2. Nambi Narayanan

Question 3 : Which among the following was the centre of ‘Tholviraku Samaram’?

1. Kavumbai

2. Cheemeni

3. Karivellur

4. Morazha

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2. Cheemeni

Question 4 : Origin of classical dance ‘Kathak’ is in

1. Odissha

2. U.P

3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Madhya Pradesh

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2. U.P

Question 5 : First electronic digital computer of the world is

1. Deep Blue

2. Cosmos

3. Blue Geno

4. Eniac

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4. Eniac

Question 6 : Name the book written by Anna Burns, which gets Man Booker Prize in 2018

1. Washington Black

2. Nobones

3. Little construction

4. Milkman

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4. Milkman

Question 7 : Where was the venue of first session of yogakshema sabha?

1. Aluva

2. Pattambi

3. Kuttippuram

4. Sreekrishnapuram

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1. Aluva

Question 8 : World Habitat Day is observed on

1. September 17

2. October 9

3. October 3

4. September 12

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3. October 3

Question 9 : Who was the first editor of monthly namely ‘Vivekodayam’?

1. V.T. Bhattathirippad

2. Vakbhatananda

3. Premji

4. N. Kumaran Asan

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4. N. Kumaran Asan

Question 10 : Name of the first atomic submarine of India

1. V.R. Gill

2. D.B. Mahawar

3. INS. Chakra

4. R.N. Shukla

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3. INS. Chakra

Question 11 : Name the programme introduced by government of India for Bangladesh refugees?

1. Operation Insaniyat

2. Operation Bangla

3. Operation Sadbhavana

4. Operation Meghdoot

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1. Operation Insaniyat

Question 12 : Name the play written by Lalithambika Antharjanam on the basis of widow re-marriage?

1. Lalithanjali

2. Ayirathiri

3. Punarjanmam

4. Pavithramothiram

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3. Punarjanmam

Question 13 : Which Indian Five Year Plan is known as ‘Gadgil Yojana’?

1. Fourth Plan

2. Third Plan

3. Second Five Year Plan

4. Sixth Five Year Plan

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2. Third Plan

Question 14 : Name the film, which gets national award for best film on social issues in 2017

1. Aalorukkam

2. Thondimuthalum Driksakshiyum

3. Bhayanakam

4. Take off

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1. Aalorukkam

Question 15 : Swachhbharat scheme was inaugurated on

1. August 15, 2015

2. August 15, 2014

3. October 2, 2014

4. January 26, 2014

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3. October 2, 2014

Question 16 : Which Tennis Cup is known as Rolandgarros?

1. U.S. Open

2. Australian Open

3. Wimbledon

4. French Open

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4. French Open

Question 17 : Name the novel which gets Vayalar Award in 2018?

1. Syamamadhavam

2. Ushnaraashi

3. Thakshankunnu Swaroopam

4. Sugandhi Enna Andal-Devanayaki

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2. Ushnaraashi

Question 18 : The venue of 10th BRICS summit 2018 is

1. Xianen – China

2. Fortaleza – Brazil

3. Johannesberg – South Africa

4. Panaji – Goa, India

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3. Johannesberg – South Africa

Question 19 : Name the programme of government of Kerala for rehabilitation of differently abled

1. Kaivalya

2. Kaithangu

3. Thuna

4. Ardram

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1. Kaivalya

Question 20 : The first ever airport of Sikkim is at ____________.

1. Gangtok

2. Lachung

3. Pelling

4. Pakyong

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4. Pakyong

Question 21 : Decreasing order of ability of antibodies to fix complement is

1. IgM > IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2

2. IgG1 > IgG2 > IgM > IgG3

3. IgG1 > IgM > IgG2 > IgG3

4. IgG3 > IgG2 > IgG1 > IgM

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1. IgM > IgG3 > IgG1 > IgG2

Question 22 : The test used for screening pregnant women for antibodies that may cause haemolytic disease of new born is

1. Neutralisation test

2. Direct coombs test

3. Indirect coombs test

4. Immunohistochemistry

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3. Indirect coombs test

Question 23 : All are true about Type IV hypersensitivity except

1. Delayed type of hypersensitivity

2. Immune mechanism against intracellular microorganisms

3. ‘T_{DTH}’ cells are the principal mediators

4. Radio-immunosorbent test for serum IgE helps in diagnosis

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4. Radio-immunosorbent test for serum IgE helps in diagnosis

Question 24 : Elek’s gel precipitation test is an example of

1. Oudine procedure

2. Ouchterlony procedure

3. Oakley-Fulthrop procedure

4. Rocket electrophoresis

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2. Ouchterlony procedure

Question 25 : C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency leads to

1. Recurrent pyogenic infections

2. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

3. Collagen vascular diseases

4. Heriditary angioneurotic oedema

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4. Heriditary angioneurotic oedema

Question 26 : Type II hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by

1. IgG

2. Antigen-antibody complex

3. IgA

4. IgE

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1. IgG

Question 27 : Which of the following is an antibody dependent pathway?

1. Classical pathway

2. Alternate pathway

3. Lectin pathway

4. None of the above

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1. Classical pathway

Question 28 : Most common bacteria causing neonatal meningitis is

1. Streptococcus pneumonia

2. Haemophilus influenza

3. Neisseria meningitidis

4. Escherichia coli

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4. Escherichia coli

Question 29 : AIIR is needed in

1. Droplet precautions

2. Airborne precautions

3. Contact precautions

4. None of the above

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2. Airborne precautions

Question 30 : According to Biomedical waste management 2018, metallic body implants should be segregated in

1. White container (puncture proof box)

2. Yellow bag with biohazard symbol

3. Blue container (puncture proof box)

4. Red bag with biohazard symbol

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3. Blue container (puncture proof box)

Question 31 : Bundle care approach for prevention of CAUTI is

1. Drainage bag must be always above the bladder level

2. Closed drainage system should be maintained

3. Silastic catheters is associated with increased chance of urethritis

4. Routine prophylactic antimicrobial therapy is advised

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2. Closed drainage system should be maintained

Question 32 : Bundle care of VAP includes all except

1. Elevation of head end of the bed to 30-45°

2. Change ventilator tubings frequently

3. Daily interruption of sedation

4. Prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease

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2. Change ventilator tubings frequently

Question 33 : Lymphogranuloma Venereum is caused by

1. Haemophilus ducreyi

2. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

3. Chlamydia trachomatis

4. Gardnerella vaginalis

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3. Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 34 : All are true about Mucormycosis EXCEPT

1. Major risk factor is uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

2. Posaconazole is effective

3. Angioinvasive

4. Septate hyphae with branched sporangiophores, rhizoids absent

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4. Septate hyphae with branched sporangiophores, rhizoids absent

Question 35 : True about CBNAAT is

1. Detects INH resistance

2. Detection limit of ‘”10^{4}”‘ bacilli/ml sputum

3. Detects mutations of the rpo B gene

4. Can further speciate MTB complex

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3. Detects mutations of the rpo B gene

Question 36 : Modified Faine’s criteria is used for the diagnosis of

1. Rheumatic fever

2. Bacterial vaginosis

3. Systemic lupus erythematosis

4. Leptospirosis

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4. Leptospirosis

Question 37 : Sorbitol Mac Conkey agar is used for laboratry diagnosis of

1. EHEC

2. ETEC

3. EPEC

4. EIEC

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1. EHEC

Question 38 : All are true about Gluteraldehyde as disinfectant except

1. Exposure monitoring not required

2. Bactericidal, Virucidal, Sporicidal

3. Alkaline solution is active

4. Not stains skin proteins

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1. Exposure monitoring not required

Question 39 : Flash sterilization is

1. Can be used as a routine substituite for autoclave

2. Holding period is 132° C at 27-28 lbs for 3-4 minutes

3. Can be used for wrapped items

4. All of the above

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2. Holding period is 132° C at 27-28 lbs for 3-4 minutes

Question 40 : Concentration of Orthophthaldehyde as chemical sterilant

1. 3%-6%

2. 2%

3. 0.55%

4. 10%

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3. 0.55%

Question 41 : Sequence of removing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

1. Gloves, Gown, Goggles, Mask

2. Glove, Mask, Goggles, Gown

3. Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask

4. Gown, Mask, Gloves, Goggles

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3. Gloves, Goggles, Gown, Mask

Question 42 : Most sensitive indicator of carbapenemase production is non-susceptibility to

1. Meropenem

2. Doripenem

3. Imipenem

4. Ertapenem

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4. Ertapenem

Question 43 : Which is not a Back End Strategy of Antimicrobial Stewardship programme

1. Sustainable than Front end strategy

2. Prospective audit and feedback is an example

3. Formulary restriction

4. It is labour intensive than Front-end strategy

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3. Formulary restriction

Question 44 : Types of EQA methods include

1. Proficiency testing

2. Rechecking or Retesting

3. On-site evaluation

4. All of the above

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4. All of the above

Question 45 : True about TSI agar is

1. Ratio of sucrose to glucose is 1:10

2. It can be used only when testing a bacterial species selected from a single colony recovered on primary or selective agar plates

3. It is better than KIA for screening stool specimens for Yersinia enterocolitica

4. It is more sensitive in the detection of hydrogen sulphide than SIM

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2. It can be used only when testing a bacterial species selected from a single colony recovered on primary or selective agar plates

Question 46 : Choose the correct statement about toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus:

1. Panton Valentine toxin is associated with HA-MRSA

2. beta hemolysin of Staphylococcus aureus is also known as synergohymenotropic toxin

3. Hot-cold phenomenon is exhibited by alpha hemolysin

4. Enterotoxin is a pyrogenic exotoxin superantigen

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4. Enterotoxin is a pyrogenic exotoxin superantigen

Question 47 : All the tests listed below are useful in differentiating Streptococcus pneumoniae from Viridans streptococci except:

1. Bacitracin sensitivity

2. Bile solubility

3. Inulin fermentation

4. Optochin sensitivity

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1. Bacitracin sensitivity

Question 48 : Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for which bacterium?

1. Streptococcus pyogenes

2. Bacillus cereus

3. Bacteroides fragilis

4. Haemophilus ducreyi

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1. Streptococcus pyogenes

Question 49 : Resistance in Streptococcus pneumonia against beta lactams is due to:

1. Presence of penicillinase enzymes

2. Efflux pumps

3. Altered penicillin binding proteins

4. Decreased permeability across cell wall

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3. Altered penicillin binding proteins

Question 50 : Which among the following serogroup of Neisseria menigitidis is not associated with invasive disease?

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

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4. D

Question 51 : Auxotyping is done for:

1. Meningococci

2. Streptococci

3. Gonococci

4. Enterococci

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3. Gonococci

Question 52 : Shanghai fever is caused by:

1. Burkholderia cepacia

2. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

3. Pseudomonas auruginosa

4. Corynebacterium jeikeium

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3. Pseudomonas auruginosa

Question 53 : Which secretion system is responsible for the secretion of Exotoxin A by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

1. Type I

2. Type II

3. Type III

4. Type IV

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2. Type II

Question 54 : δ-aminolevulinic acid agar test for Haemophilus influenzae is used to:

1. Detect requirement of X factor

2. Select out H.influenzae

3. Detect requirement of V factor

4. Enhance capsule formation

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1. Detect requirement of X factor

Question 55 : Acinetobacter baumannii is an established hospital pathogen. All the following statements are true regarding this agent EXCEPT:

1. A.baumannii can be transmitted by airborne route

2. Most important mechanism for drug resistance is by expression of β lactamases

3. Sulbactum has intrinsic activity against A.baumannii

4. Meropenem and ertapenem are effective in treating A.baumannii infections

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4. Meropenem and ertapenem are effective in treating A.baumannii infections

Question 56 : Vibrio cholera toxin acts by

1. Glycosylate GTP binding protein

2. Elevated intracellular cGMP

3. ADP ribosylation of G protein

4. Inhibition of cAMP

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3. ADP ribosylation of G protein

Question 57 : Twenty two year old male who was severely injured following a road traffic accident was brought to casualty. He has completed the course of tetanus toxoid (TT) 10 years back. He should receive:

1. TT 1 dose + HTIG

2. TT 1 dose

3. TT complete dose

4. TT complete dose + HTIG

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1. TT 1 dose + HTIG

Question 58 : Preferred test to confirm H.pylori eradication is:

1. Culture

2. Urea breath test

3. Rapid urease test

4. Antibody detection

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2. Urea breath test

Question 59 : Colicin typing is done for:

1. S.dysenteriae

2. S.flexneri

3. S.boydii

4. S.sonnei

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4. S.sonnei

Question 60 : Screening for chronic carrier state following S.typhi infection is carried out by:

1. Widal test

2. Demonstrating Vi antigen

3. Detection of Vi antibodies

4. Nested PCR of serum sample

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3. Detection of Vi antibodies

Question 61 : XDR TB is defined as:

1. Resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin irrespective of resistance to any other drug

2. Resistance to more than one drug other than co resistance to INH and rifampicin

3. MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one injectable second-line drugs

4. MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or fluoroquinolones

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3. MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one injectable second-line drugs

Question 62 : Choose the correct statement about the tests used for diagnosis of syphilis:

1. RPR and USR tests do not require a microscope to detect flocculation

2. In TPPA, tanned RBCs are coated with T.pallidum antigens

3. TPHA fails to detect CSF antibodies

4. Non treponemal tests are recommended to monitor treatment response

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4. Non treponemal tests are recommended to monitor treatment response

Question 63 : True about Leptospira interrogans:

1. It is a facultative anaerobe

2. Semisolid Fletcher’s medium is useful in cultivating this bacterium

3. Levaditi staining is used to demonstrate L.interrogans

4. Serovar specific PCR tests are available

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2. Semisolid Fletcher’s medium is useful in cultivating this bacterium

Question 64 : Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K causes:

1. Genital chlamydiasis

2. Interstitial pneumonia

3. Atherosclerosis

4. Lymphogranuloma venereum

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1. Genital chlamydiasis

Question 65 : Choose the true statement regarding Mycoplasma pneumoniae:

1. Obligate intracellular parasites

2. Mycoplasmas are L forms

3. Lung biopsy specimen typically lacks signs of inflammation

4. Hydrogen peroxide plays a major role in pathogenesis

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4. Hydrogen peroxide plays a major role in pathogenesis

Question 66 : All the following are true with regards to Coxiella burnetii EXCEPT:

1. Most common mode of transmission is by aerosol route

2. Endocarditis is a major feature of chronic Q fever

3. Anti-phase II IgG titre of > 6400 is diagnostic of chronic Q fever

4. Doxycycline + hydroxychoroquine is used for treating Q fever

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3. Anti-phase II IgG titre of > 6400 is diagnostic of chronic Q fever

Question 67 : Transovarian transmission in vectors is seen in:

1. Scrub typhus

2. Endemic typhus

3. Epidemic typhus

4. Trench fever

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1. Scrub typhus

Question 68 : How do catalase test for mycobacteria differ from that done for other bacteria?

1. 30% `”H_2O_2″` + 10% Tween 80

2. 1% `”H_2O_2″` + Phosphate buffer at pH 6.4%

3. 3% `”H_2O_2″` + 10% Tween 80

4. 10% `”H_2O_2″` + 0.85% saline

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1. 30% `”H_2O_2″` + 10% Tween 80

Question 69 : Hair perforation test is positive in

1. Trichophyton violaceum

2. Trichophyton mentagrophytes

3. Trichophyton audouinii

4. Trichophyton schoenleinii

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2. Trichophyton mentagrophytes

Question 70 : Mode of infection of Ascaris lumbricoides

1. Penetration of skin by larva

2. Autoinfection

3. Ingestion of eggs

4. Ingestion of larva

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3. Ingestion of eggs

Question 71 : True about microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti

1. Sheathed, nuclei at the tail tip

2. Sheathed, no nuclei at tail tip

3. Unsheathed, no nuclei at tail tip

4. Unsheathed and nuclei at tail tip

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2. Sheathed, no nuclei at tail tip

Question 72 : Dimorphic fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis

1. Phialophora verrucosa

2. Sporothrix schenckii

3. Fonsecaea pedrosoi

4. Cladosporium carrionii

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2. Sporothrix schenckii

Question 73 : Subtype of human immunodeficiency virus 1 more common in India.

1. Subtype A

2. Subtype B

3. Subtype C

4. Subtype D

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3. Subtype C

Question 74 : Skin test for diagnosis of hydatid cyst

1. Casoni’s test

2. Schick test

3. Dick test

4. Frei test

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1. Casoni’s test

Question 75 : Immune complex mediated nephritis is seen in chronic infection with

1. Plasmodium malariae

2. Plasmodium ovale

3. Plasmodium vivax

4. Plasmodium falciparum

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1. Plasmodium malariae

Question 76 : All are true about super carriers except

1. Highly infectious

2. High level of HBsAg, HBe Ag

3. Low level of HBsAg, no HBeAg

4. High level of HBV DNA, DNA polymerase

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3. Low level of HBsAg, no HBeAg

Question 77 : Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis

1. Brain

2. Lung

3. Spleen

4. Liver

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4. Liver

Question 78 : All are true about Histoplasma capsulatum var.duboisii except

1. Causes African histoplasmosis

2. Skin and bone involvement mainly

3. Yeast cells size 7-15 µm

4. Yeast cell size 2-4 µm

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4. Yeast cell size 2-4 µm

Question 79 : Genotype of Hepatitis C Virus with poor response to treatment

1. Genotype 1b

2. Genotype 1a

3. Genotype 2

4. Genotype 3

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1. Genotype 1b

Question 80 : Highest mortality in pregnancy is associated with

1. Hepatitis A

2. Hepatitis B

3. Hepatitis E

4. Hepatitis D

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3. Hepatitis E

Question 81 : All are true about Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis except

1. Strains similar to oral polio virus

2. Seen in places where OPV is used extensively

3. Common serotype Sabin type 3

4. High level genetic divergence from OPV strain

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4. High level genetic divergence from OPV strain

Question 82 : True about Antigenic drift

1. Point mutation

2. Results in pandemics

3. Occurs in influenza A virus

4. Occurs every 10-20 years

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1. Point mutation

Question 83 : Koplik’s spots are pathognomonic of

1. Measles

2. Mumps

3. Rubella

4. Chicken pox

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1. Measles

Question 84 : Nipah virus belongs to

1. Paramyxovirus

2. Orthomyxovirus

3. Picorna virus

4. Enterovirus

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1. Paramyxovirus

Question 85 : All are true about Negri bodies except

1. Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions

2. Common in cerebellum, hippocampus

3. 2-10 µ size

4. Its absence rule out diagnosis of Rabies

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4. Its absence rule out diagnosis of Rabies

Question 86 : Rabies vaccine is prepared from

1. Street virus

2. Fixed virus

3. Live virus

4. Wild virus

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2. Fixed virus

Question 87 : All are human prion disease except

1. Kuru

2. Classical Creutzfeldt Jakob disease

3. Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis

4. Straussler-Scheinker syndrome

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3. Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis

Question 88 : All are Epstein Barr Virus associated malignancy except

1. Burkitt’s lymphoma

2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

3. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

4. Hepatocellular carcinoma

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4. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Question 89 : All are true about chickenpox in pregnancy except

1. Not terratogenic

2. Mothers at risk of varicella pneumonia

3. Congenital infection more in 2nd half

4. Congenital infections rare in 1st half

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1. Not terratogenic

Question 90 : Characteristic cytopathic effect of herpes simplex

1. Diffuse roundening and ballooning

2. Syncitium or multinucleated giant cells

3. Crenation and degeneration

4. Cytoplasmic vacoulation

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1. Diffuse roundening and ballooning

Question 91 : Which serotype of Dengue virus is more dangerous?

1. Serotype 1

2. Serotype 2

3. Serotype 3

4. Serotype 4

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2. Serotype 2

Question 92 : All the following are the genotypes of chikungunea virus except

1. West African

2. East African

3. Asian

4. North American

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4. North American

Question 93 : Commonest clinical presentation of mumps

1. Aseptic meningitis

2. Bilateral parotitis

3. Epididymo orchitis

4. Pancreatitis

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2. Bilateral parotitis

Question 94 : Suckling mouse can be used for viral isolation of

1. Coxsackie virus

2. Mumps virus

3. Measles virus

4. Influenza virus

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1. Coxsackie virus

Question 95 : All are true about chicken pox vaccine except

1. Live vaccine

2. One dose for adults

3. Oka strain given

4. 2 doses for children

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2. One dose for adults

Question 96 : Germ tube test is positive for

1. Candida albicans

2. Candida glabrata

3. Candida krusei

4. Candida tropicalis

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1. Candida albicans

Question 97 : Following are true about Cryptococcus except

1. Serotypes of Cryptococcus – A, B, C, D

2. C.neoformans seen in pigeon droppings

3. Capsule is main virulence factor

4. C.neoformans inhabits in eucalyptus tree

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4. C.neoformans inhabits in eucalyptus tree

Question 98 : Virus producing haemorrhagic fever

1. Kyasanur forest disease virus

2. Japanese B.encephalitis virus

3. Chandipura virus

4. West Nile virus

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1. Kyasanur forest disease virus

FINAL ANSWER KEY

Question Paper Code: 6/2019/OL

Category Code: 031/2018

Assistant professor in Microbiology (NCA) – 031-2018

Medium of Question: English

Date of Test 20-03-2019

Department Medical Education

Alphacode A